Except that these points are not made by me.steve7150 wrote:For me, what is most odd about this scheme of things: 1) God is supposed to have waited 1,500 years or so to providentially produce this perfect translation, and 2) He is supposed to have decided to limit His purest message to one translation in one form of one language (English, of course) which most of the world has not and does not and perhaps never will understand at all or well *.
Good points and also even after the 1,600 years the great majority of people who even spoke english were illiterate plus even for the remaining few who spoke english and were literate, very few of those had access to KJV bibles for several hundred years.
So God providentially preserved his word for less then 1% of the world's population for roughly 1,700 - 1,800 years after Christ. I thought God has no partiality toward any groups of people. Apparently he is partial to white people who live in England, who were literate and who had enough money and freedom to buy a KJB
The Scripture has been sufficiently and adequately supplied throughout history.
The Scripture is pure, and has been accessed by many people in many places.
Only now, not in 1611, is there the opening up of availability of the King James Bible everywhere for all nations.
It is the modern versionist who is attacking the work of God in history, scoffing at centuries of the Bible, and claiming that the KJB has problems and errors, and stating that now, only in recent years, has there begun to be an excelling understanding via modern textual criticism, etc.
The 1611 Bible was first printed in London, and there is only one version of it.steve7150 wrote:1611 bible. (Cambridge version)