Before I reply concerning Gehenna I would like clarification regarding what your position is; I do not want to respond again to something that is not your position.
A few posts back you wrote:
And:You say Gehenna "is always used figuratively." I wonder how you support this contention. As near as I can tell, from the Old Testament passages where it appears, the Valley of Hinnom is always used literally by canonical writers. Of course, the imaginative rabbis had innovated a figurative application for Gehenna, but Jesus sternly warned His disciples to avoid the doctrines of those folks (Matt.16:12).
As I understand you it is your contention that Gehenna never refers to hell, but was always used by Jesus of the literal valley of outside Jerusalem, where in fact the bodies of those slain in 70 AD were disposed of, and is never used figuratively. Is this correct?If Gehenna refers to the hell that every lost sinner, Jew and Gentile, will enter, it is interesting that no one was ever warned about it in scripture except for Palestinian Jews. None of the epistles written to Gentiles ever mention it. If Gehenna is hell, and not the holocaust of AD 66-70, would not the Gentiles be in as much danger of it as the Jews to whom Jesus spoke? Should they not also have been warned?
Perhaps there should be another thread on this subject.