My Case for eternal Hell

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john6809
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Re: My Case for eternal Hell

Post by john6809 » Thu Dec 13, 2012 12:16 am

Singalphile wrote:I've looked at various online lexicons, concordances, and articles. I can tell you, as someone who will readily accept any of the three main views (or another) and who just wants to know which English words or concepts for kolasis or aionios are the best, it's not easy to tell for sure. I will say that I'm inclined to go with the majority opinion of Greek scholars. But perhaps "we don't know" is still the best, most honest position.
I have not studied the conditional immortality view as of yet, but I feel the same about the two views with which I do have some familiarity, though I am definitely moving away from the ET view, simply because it doesn't seem like it fits God's revealed character. When reading the OT, I have had difficulties reconciling the way God works (at times) with the side of God that Jesus reveals. I have often cringed when reading of God's commandments in the OT where He requires that the armies of Israel kill every man, woman, and child when they conquer a pagan nation. It has seemed a harsh sentence, especially when it is coupled with the idea that there is no opportunity for post-mortem repentance (in the ET view). The very idea that it may be possible for these masses of God's creation to yet be saved is a hopeful thought. If He intends these judgements to be temporal, it certainly could explain why He would judge these nations as He did.

All that said, I am comfortable serving Him no matter what His view of justice is. I agree with Steve that many people get wrapped up in the idea that we have suffered loss because we could have done what we wanted during our time on this earth and still be saved. I don't buy into the theory that it's easier to beg forgiveness than permission so let's sin and be forgiven later. I would rather please Him now and later. And that should be the gospel message that others hear from us.
Well said Singalphile! We don't KNOW.
"My memory is nearly gone; but I remember two things: That I am a great sinner, and that Christ is a great Savior." - John Newton

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Paidion
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Re: My Case for eternal Hell

Post by Paidion » Thu Dec 13, 2012 4:46 pm

John6809 wrote:When reading the OT, I have had difficulties reconciling the way God works (at times) with the side of God that Jesus reveals. I have often cringed when reading of God's commandments in the OT where He requires that the armies of Israel kill every man, woman, and child when they conquer a pagan nation.
Jesus is the one who revealed his Father to man as He really is, is He not? Or do you actually believe Jesus revealed only the good "side of God"? — whereas the side which Jesus did not reveal is His vicious, penalizing, murderous side? If God had a side like that, surely Jesus wouldn't have kept it hidden? That would be at worst — deceptive, and at best — only an incomplete revelation of God, would it not?

Wouldn't it be simpler to believe that prior to Jesus' times, God's revelation to man was incomplete? That man sometimes even mistook the revelation of God because of his own hateful, revengeful tendencies — projecting his own ugliness upon God?

Jesus was the exact imprint of the Father's essence (Hebrews 1:3) and he taught his disciples to love their enemies, not take revenge upon them. So if the Father had "another side", then so did Jesus. But you never see any bad side to Jesus. He never took vengeance on anyone. He didn't say that the woman taken in adultery should be stoned as in the Mosaic law, but told the scribes and Pharisees that whoever was without sin could cast the first stone at her, knowing that they were all sinners. Then when they all departed in shame, He forgave the woman and told her to go on her way and sin no more.

Here is how Jesus instructed his disciples to behave toward those who hated them:

Now I tell you, love your enemies and pray for those who persecute you, so that you may be sons of your father who is in heaven; for he makes his sun rise on the evil and on the good, and sends rain on the just and on the unjust. (Matthew 5:44,45)
Love your enemies, and do good, and lend, expecting nothing in return; and your reward will be great, and you will be sons of the most high; for he is kind to the ungrateful and the selfish.(Luke 6:35)


We show ourselves to be "sons of the Most High" by behaving like the Most High, loving sinners, and doing good toward them — never seeking vengeance or rendering penalizing punishment on them.

As John the apostle wrote: "God is LOVE". He didn't write "God is half LOVE and half HATE."
Paidion

Man judges a person by his past deeds, and administers penalties for his wrongdoing. God judges a person by his present character, and disciplines him that he may become righteous.

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Homer
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Re: My Case for eternal Hell

Post by Homer » Fri Dec 14, 2012 12:23 am

Paidion,
Both Josephus and Philo spoke of kolasis as divine retribution.

Quote them ... including your proof that they used the word with the meaning of retribution.
Glad to help you. For your edification I have a quote from Josephus and some passages from Maccabees. I don't have time for Philo but am told there are a number of them in his work that speak of punishment. I have underlined where the Greek word is translated "punishment", for your convenience.

Josephus, Antiquities
2:2 But when he was informed that Herod had received the kingdom, new hopes came upon him, as having been himself still of a kind disposition towards him, and expecting that Herod would bear in mind what favor be had received from him; and when he was upon his trial, and when he was in danger that a capital sentence would be pronounced against him, he delivered him from that danger, and from all punishment.

2 Maccabees
4:38 – …and inflamed with anger, he immediately stripped off the purple robe from Andronicus, tore off his garments, and led him about the whole city to that very place where he had committed the outrage against Onias, and there he dispatched the bloodthirsty fellow. The Lord thus repaid him with the punishment he deserved.

3 Maccabees
7:10 Upon receiving this letter the Jews did not immediately hurry to make their departure, but they requested of the king that at their own hands those of the Jewish nation who had willfully transgressed against the holy God and the law of God should receive the punishment they deserved. 11. For they declared that those who for the belly's sake had transgressed the divine commandments would never be favorably disposed toward the king's government. 12. The king then, admitting and approving the truth of what they said, granted them a general license so that freely and without royal authority or supervision they might destroy those everywhere in his kingdom who had transgressed the law of God. 13. When they had applauded him in fitting manner, their priests and the whole multitude shouted the Hallelujah and joyfully departed. 14. And so on their way they punished and put to a public and shameful death any whom they met of their fellow-countrymen who had become defiled. 15. In that day they put to death more than three hundred men; and they kept the day as a joyful festival, since they had destroyed the profaners.

(Note: The punishment was the execution of 300 men.)

4 Maccabees
8:8 – For if you provoke me by your disobedience, you will compel me to destroy you, every one, with terrible punishments by tortures.

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Re: My Case for eternal Hell

Post by jriccitelli » Fri Dec 14, 2012 11:44 am

Paidion, talk about the same old lines, without thinking about what has been said.
Are you going to bring your analogy of the man with two sons again?

Paidion; 'whereas the side which Jesus did not reveal is His vicious, penalizing, murderous side? If God had a side like that, surely Jesus wouldn't have kept it hidden? That would be at worst — deceptive, and at best — only an incomplete revelation of God, would it not?

'You' interpret violent as vicious, penalty as penalizing, and death as murder. You choose your words very indiscriminately. I think Who is talking and in Who's context makes for a world of difference. God has every right to punish, chastise and extinguish His own creation. We do not.
Jesus didn’t have to repeat or reveal what God has already said Himself;
'For if you believed Moses, you would believe Me, for he wrote about Me.47 But if you do not believe his writings, how will you believe My words' (John 5)

Paidion; Wouldn't it be simpler to believe that prior to Jesus' times, God's revelation to man was incomplete? That man sometimes even mistook the revelation of God because of his own hateful, revengeful tendencies — projecting his own ugliness upon God?

Wouldn't it be easier for us to say that 'you' think Gods revelation is incomplete, that you are mistaking Gods revelation, because of your own - misconceptions - projecting your own ideas about God on others. I sound so mean, but I only defending the billions of people are 'not' so dense that they cannot see that God holds 'all' of us accountable for our actions, and that He has every right to punish those who sin.

John 6809 is justified when he says 'When reading the OT, I have had difficulties reconciling the way God works (at times)' Paidions answer though is; 'don’t believe what your reading'.
The truth is; 'God is just as He describes Himself'
The answer is that Jesus took the wrath of God upon sin upon Himself for your sins and mine.
But if you do 'not' believe there is no other payment for sin but death.
Paidion, do you believe this believe this or not?

John, the destroying of men woman and children is no different than when God destroyed the whole earth and every person but a few. God is making His point, he will not tolerate sin, sins follow their fathers, and God knew the survivors would corrupt the nation of Israel, as it does with the Saints today. These were not communities of Buddhist monks either, they were violent heathen nations (But I feel you knew that, it is a tough pill to swallow for me too I know, but look around at mans history, we are sinners)

We are told to love our enemies because we 'believe' God paid our penalty;
'He who believes in Him is not judged; he who does not believe has been judged already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God' (John 3:18)

Paidion; 'So if the Father had "another side", then so did Jesus. But you never see any bad side to Jesus. He never took vengeance on anyone, He didn't say that the woman taken in adultery should be stoned as in the Mosaic law '

That is deceptive Paidion, Jesus did say the woman taken in adultery should be stoned, that is how He could tell them that whoever is 'able' should take up the stone.
So Jesus did order the stoning, the point is that He could forgive because He was going to take the punishment for her, Himself. If you do 'not' believe that He took Gods wrath, you will experience Gods wrath yourself.
Jesus knew He was going to take the punishment for 'all' of us, but it 'only applies' if you 'accept' and believe this.

Paidion you never respond to the point of all Judgment being handed over to the Son;
"Fall on us and hide us from the presence of Him who sits on the throne, and from the wrath of the Lamb;17 for the great day of their wrath has come, and who is able to stand?" (Revelation 6)

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steve
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Re: My Case for eternal Hell

Post by steve » Fri Dec 14, 2012 1:06 pm

There is definitely lexical evidence for the use of kolasis as "punishment", but also for "correction."

Kittel gives both definitions: ""Chastisement," "punishment"

Thayer's Lexicon gives, as the meaning of kolasis, "correction, punishment, penalty". He then refers to the "noted definition of Aristotle, who distinguishes kolasis from timora as that which (is disciplinary and) has reference to him who suffers, while the latter (is penal and) has reference to the satisfaction of him who inflicts..." Thayer also finds this distinction in Plato. However, he adds that "as in other cases, usage (esp. the later) does not always recognize the distinction"—giving Philo as an example of one who uses the terms interchangeably.

It would seem, then, that in New Testament times, kolasis could be used of either "correction" or "penal punishment." The traditionalist view might insist on the latter definition, but there appears to be room for the other definition, if other factors call for it—meaning the non traditionalist views can also accommodate its appearance in Matthew 25:46.

Bauer, Arndt, Gingrich does not mention correction, but only punishment, with reference to kolasis, but this does not tell us whether the punishment is corrective or merely vindictive. An online dictionary defines punishment thus:
pun·ish·ment (pnsh-mnt)
n.
1.
a. The act or an instance of punishing.
b. The condition of being punished.
2. A penalty imposed for wrongdoing: "The severity of the punishment must . . . be in keeping with the kind of obligation which has been violated" (Simone Weil).
3. Rough handling; mistreatment: These old skis have taken a lot of punishment over the years.
Even in cases where punishment is retributive, it may also have behind it the motivation to improve the punished party. That would depend upon the intentions of the punishing authority.

Since Matthew 25:46, is one of only two places where it occurs in the New Testament (and the other place has little of significance hanging on it), Christian lexicographers often seem to allow their interest in preserving a certain meaning of Matthew 25:46 to sway what they say about the word. For example, W.E. Vine seems especially concerned to remove any possibility of the universalist or conditionalist positions by denying any distinction between kolasis and timora. After defining the former as "punishment" and the latter as "vengeance," he is at pains to undermine any argument from this distinction that might support any view other than the traditionalist's. He follows the definition of timora with this:
Note: The distinction, sometimes suggested, between [kolasis] as being disciplinary, with special reference to the sufferer, and [timora], as being penal, with reference to the satisfaction of him who inflicts it, cannot be maintained in the Koine Greek of NT times. (p.498)
Though sharing the same concern, Spiros Zodhiates (whose native language is modern Greek) writes, concerning timora and kolasis:

Timora is the vindictive character of the punishment as the predominant thought which satisfies the inflicter's sense of outraged justice...Kolasis, on the other hand, conveys the notion of punishment for the correction and bettering of the offender. (The Complete Word Study New Testament:Lexical Aids to the New Testament, p.916; also in The Complete Word Study Dictionary:New Testament, p.874)

Zodhiates, though, is likewise eager to remove this meaning from the key verse in the controversy:
It does not always, however, have this strict meaning in the NT. In Matt. 25:46, kolasis aionios (166), eternal, does not refer to temporarv corrective punishment and discipline, but has rather the meaning of timoria.
This disclaimer gives us a glimpse into the way even lexicographer's think. They are required to develop their definitions from actual cases of the occurrence of words in the literature. However, their interpretation of the literature itself colors their definitions. Here, because Zodhiates thinks the word aionios requires endlessness, he concludes that kolasis, in this verse, must not mean corrective punishment—which he otherwise admits to be its meaning.

In this, he is apparently doing the same thing Vine did, with the exception that Zodhiates admits that he is making an exception to the rule in Matthew 25:46, and Vine does not reveal this about his own procedure.

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Re: My Case for eternal Hell

Post by steve7150 » Fri Dec 14, 2012 2:07 pm

There is definitely lexical evidence for the use of kolasis as "punishment", but also for "correction."

Kittel gives both definitions: ""Chastisement," "punishment"









Am i missing something when i have thought that punishment can be part of a corrective process?

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Re: My Case for eternal Hell

Post by steve » Fri Dec 14, 2012 4:52 pm

It seems that the whole idea behind our system of "penitentiaries" (as the name implies) was to seek to bring about penitence in the criminal. Yet we call a prison term "punishment."

I am not saying whether our prison system is right or wrong in this. It just seems that it is a given that "punishment" can have correction as its goal.

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Re: My Case for eternal Hell

Post by Paidion » Sun Dec 16, 2012 1:36 pm

Thank you Homer, for those quotes concerning the Greek noun "κολασις". I don't have a Greek edition of Josephus' works, and can't seem to find any on the internet except through purchase at considerable cost.

However, I do have the Greek of 2 and 3 Macabees on my "Online Bible" (which is not actually online, but is an excellent computer program). I also looked at English translations.
The quotes which you provided seem indeed to show that the word was used in the penal sense, especially since both references speak of "deserved" κολασις. However, it was not this that convinced me, for correction can also be said to be deserved.

What convinced me was verse 14 where "they punished and put to a public and shameful death..." where the word "punished" is a translation of a form of "κολαζω", the verbal form of "κολασις". If they had wished to simply correct the law breakers, they would not have put them to death in this way! (You didn't think I could be convinced even by hard evidence, did you Homer?) :lol:

Though I had been aware of the information Steve provided, I thank him also for pointing these matters out. It seems that in classical Greek, the words "κολασις" did mean "correction" while "τιμωρια" meant "penalty". But as time passed the word "κολαζω" was used not only for correction, but also in the sense of imposing a penalty for breaking rules or laws. Even in English, people sometimes refer to "correcting" their children when all they mean is imposing on them a penalty for breaking the house rules. Of course in some cases, a penalty may result in correction, but in classical Greek the basic distinction between the two words related to the INTENT of the punisher. If his intent was to correct, then the noun "κολασις" or the verb "κολαζω" was used. If his intent was to exact a penalty or to seek vengeance, then the noun "τιμωρια" or the verb "τιμωρεω" was used.

So as Steve indicated, "non traditionalist views can also accommodate its appearance in Matthew 25:46." In other words, it is lexically legitimate to translate "κολασις" as "correction" in that verse.

Likewise, the use of the verbal form "κολαζω" in 2 Peter 2:9 permits the following translation:

The Lord knows [how] to deliver the devout from trials and to keep the unrighteous for a day of judgment to be corrected.

If it WERE the intent of the author to use "κολαζω" here in the sense of "to be corrected", then this verse may be the most decisive verse in the entire New Testament in support of universal reconciliation of all people to God.

Where the noun "κολασις" or the verb "κολαζω" WAS used in the New Testament, we might ask ourselves why the author chose to use those words rather than the noun "τιμωρια" or the verb "τιμωρεω." It certainly seems to allow the possibility that the author had correction in mind.
Paidion

Man judges a person by his past deeds, and administers penalties for his wrongdoing. God judges a person by his present character, and disciplines him that he may become righteous.

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Re: My Case for eternal Hell

Post by john6809 » Sun Dec 16, 2012 3:54 pm

Paidion wrote:
John6809 wrote:When reading the OT, I have had difficulties reconciling the way God works (at times) with the side of God that Jesus reveals. I have often cringed when reading of God's commandments in the OT where He requires that the armies of Israel kill every man, woman, and child when they conquer a pagan nation.
Jesus is the one who revealed his Father to man as He really is, is He not? Or do you actually believe Jesus revealed only the good "side of God"? — whereas the side which Jesus did not reveal is His vicious, penalizing, murderous side? If God had a side like that, surely Jesus wouldn't have kept it hidden? That would be at worst — deceptive, and at best — only an incomplete revelation of God, would it not?

Wouldn't it be simpler to believe that prior to Jesus' times, God's revelation to man was incomplete? That man sometimes even mistook the revelation of God because of his own hateful, revengeful tendencies — projecting his own ugliness upon God?

Jesus was the exact imprint of the Father's essence (Hebrews 1:3) and he taught his disciples to love their enemies, not take revenge upon them. So if the Father had "another side", then so did Jesus. But you never see any bad side to Jesus. He never took vengeance on anyone. He didn't say that the woman taken in adultery should be stoned as in the Mosaic law, but told the scribes and Pharisees that whoever was without sin could cast the first stone at her, knowing that they were all sinners. Then when they all departed in shame, He forgave the woman and told her to go on her way and sin no more.

Here is how Jesus instructed his disciples to behave toward those who hated them:

Now I tell you, love your enemies and pray for those who persecute you, so that you may be sons of your father who is in heaven; for he makes his sun rise on the evil and on the good, and sends rain on the just and on the unjust. (Matthew 5:44,45)
Love your enemies, and do good, and lend, expecting nothing in return; and your reward will be great, and you will be sons of the most high; for he is kind to the ungrateful and the selfish.(Luke 6:35)


We show ourselves to be "sons of the Most High" by behaving like the Most High, loving sinners, and doing good toward them — never seeking vengeance or rendering penalizing punishment on them.

As John the apostle wrote: "God is LOVE". He didn't write "God is half LOVE and half HATE."
First off, please note that ‘have had’ from my words that you quoted, speaks to a former disposition, not necessarily one that I am currently having difficulties with.
Secondly, if my memory serves me well, and my understanding was correct, you don’t seem to have a very high regard for the Old Testament. When you read of the stories of judgement claiming that God had a hand in them, or even gave ascent to them, you simply seem to discount those passages and believe that the people claiming to have heard from God were at best mistaken and at worst, attributed their own evil intentions to God.
Consider the passage from Deuteronomy 20:16 – 18.
16 "But of the cities of these peoples which the LORD your God gives you as an inheritance, you shall let nothing that breathes remain alive,
17 but you shall utterly destroy them: the Hittite and the Amorite and the Canaanite and the Perizzite and the Hivite and the Jebusite, just as the LORD your God has commanded you,
18 lest they teach you to do according to all their abominations which they have done for their gods, and you sin against the LORD your God.
Yes, I understand that the reason for the utter destruction of these pagan nations was to ensure that Israel would not fall into the trap of worshipping the Gods of those whom they spared. That is not the point of concern that I am addressing.
Moses claims that God ordered the death of every living thing in these cities. Are you suggesting that Moses didn’t really hear these words from the Lord? That he just pulled them from his imagination, because of his own hateful, revengeful tendencies? Few, if any, men in the Old Testament had such an intimate relationship with God as Moses did. In addition, he was a prophet and would have been subjected to the same testing of his prophecies as any others claiming to be prophets. Obviously, as far as his prophecies were concerned, he spoke the words of God or he would not have been called a prophet.
Even Peter claims that Moses’ statements were true when he (Moses) claimed that Jesus would be a Prophet like himself (Moses). Acts 3:22 states:

22 For Moses truly said to the fathers, 'The LORD your God will raise up for you a Prophet like me from your brethren. Him you shall hear in all things, whatever He says to you.
If Moses had been mistaken about the words that God spoke to him, I am certain that Peter would not have given credence to the words of Moses where he claimed that Christ would be like himself. That would have been a very presumptuous thing to say. I think it is safe to say that Moses heard God, and that God commanded Israel to utterly destroy everything that breathed. The question is, ‘How was God’s involvement in the deaths of all those people consistent with His revealed nature of love?’
The answer to this question is obviously not as clear to me as it seems to be to you. What seems clear is that if the traditional view is correct, and physical death is a line in the sand beyond which there is no hope for salvation, then the seemingly temporal judgements of nations and individuals must also be a punitive judgement rather than a corrective judgement, since no one can repent after death.
However, if death is not that point-of-no-return that traditionalists believe it is, then the opportunity to repent may still exist after death. Thus, God can still be seen as being just and loving, even if He did cause/allow the seemingly premature death of thousands that He claims He wants to save. Their shortened opportunity to repent in this lifetime would not preclude their ability to do so in the next. At the very least, if annihilation is in view, God’s judgements still would not mean that physical death here on earth necessarily leads to eternal torment after death (which, to me, is not consistent with His revelation of Himself as being love).
Every person’s personality has ‘sides’. To my way of thinking, this would include God. I have no problem with saying that God would reveal a different side of himself when He is angry with an unrepentant sinner or sinful nation than the side He reveals to the poor and the meek. This does not mean that when He is expressing His anger, that He can’t be simultaneously expressing His love. It would seem that His anger has a purpose that goes beyond ‘making them pay’. We call it tough love. It is intended to bring correction, and therefore, restoration.
The greater concern is this: if His judgement causes some unrepentant people to cross a so-called line in the sand from life to death (physically), and further opportunity for repentance is not possible, and annihilation is not possible, is this tough love or eternal punishment?
In addition, comparing Jesus’ revelations of His Father, to a 4000 year history of God dealing with people and nations, seems a bit odd. Jesus’ ministry lasted only about 3 years. The message He was delivering was that He had arrived. His kingdom was no longer a distant thing, but was at hand. He preached that He was the fulfilment of the law and that, what the law could not accomplish, He could. That message was good news to the people. It would stand to reason that He would preach the gospel to them for at least a short a period of time before He would pronounce judgement for their unbelief.
Interestingly enough, Jesus did announce judgement to come. He said that all the blood shed from righteous Abel to Zechariah would come upon that generation. He told those who wept for Him at the cross to weep for themselves as they were soon to see His judgement executed on their nation. He warned them that He was ‘coming’ to execute judgement such as had never been seen on earth before. Josephus writes that Titus, in charge of the conquering Romans in 70 AD, understood that God Himself was demonstrating His anger towards the Jews by assisting the Roman armies.
The point I was making in my earlier post was not that I view God as a vengeful, murderous God. Rather, with the traditional understanding of personal eschatology, God did seem harsh to me. That would have been His prerogative, but I never thought it was consistent with what Jesus ascribed to His Father. My point was that if eternal torment is the correct view, He surely does not pass the kind of judgements we see in the OT as corrective chastisement but rather, as vengeful punishment. What else could it be?
But, if post-mortem repentance is possible, then His decision to allow/cause the deaths of all those people does not necessarily result in their permanent separation from Him, and His judgements can then be seen as corrective. If eternal torment were the correct view, then God is saying that He desires all men to be saved, and yet He cuts off them off.
Obviously, I am a long ways away from deciding where I stand on the issue of personal eschatology. Maybe I will never be able to declare definitively where I stand. I’m ok with that.
"My memory is nearly gone; but I remember two things: That I am a great sinner, and that Christ is a great Savior." - John Newton

steve7150
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Re: My Case for eternal Hell

Post by steve7150 » Sun Dec 16, 2012 5:36 pm

Likewise, the use of the verbal form "κολαζω" in 2 Peter 2:9 permits the following translation:

The Lord knows [how] to deliver the devout from trials and to keep the unrighteous for a day of judgment to be corrected.

If it WERE the intent of the author to use "κολαζω" here in the sense of "to be corrected", then this verse may be the most decisive verse in the entire New Testament in support of universal reconciliation of all people to God.






Paidion,
Isn't Peter only referring to folks who are already believers when he addresses "the devout"?

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