Paidion,
Incidentals:
Whether you agree that gehenna may be about 70 AD or not is moot.
Thanatos is the NT word for "death"---not hades. Hades is the NT equivalent of the OT sheol: the realm of the dead.
Particulars:
I wrote:
1. 'Orthodox' Christians claim:
a. Salvation is obtained in this life alone---by believing the Gospel: the "good news" that Christ has merited eternal life for all who believe.
b. Those who do not believe in this life cannot come to salvation in the afterlife because,
c. The Gospel will not be preached in the afterlife as Jesus Himself said, And this gospel of the kingdom will be preached in the whole world as a testimony to all nations, and then the end will come (Matt 24:12, NIV).
You replied:
"Orthodox" means "true". Are you suggesting that those who do not make these claims are not true Christians? Or do your single quotes around "orthodox" mean that you are using the word in an unusual sense? If so, in what sense?
'Orthodox' in quotes was to identify those who have 'traditional (Protestant)' beliefs.
I wrote nothing about who is or isn't a 'true Christian'.
I wrote:
Some universalists (as seen on this forum anyway) do in fact believe that there are at least two ways people can be saved, which are stated as:
1. Through currently believing the Gospel: the merits of the cross of Christ on our behalf to save us and,
2. Through undergoing a post-mortem meritorious punishment that atones for the current sin of unbelief (bold, for emphasis).
2. In this life there is one repentance to belief in one Gospel. The "correction" of not believing it is to believe it.
You replied:
Please name those universalists on this forum. I am not aware of any who believe there are at least two ways to be "saved".
Okay, let me rephrase it:
"Some posters on this forum" do in fact believe that there are at least two ways people can be saved, which are stated as:
1. Through currently believing the Gospel: the merits of the cross of Christ on our behalf to save us (which is what 'orthodox Protestant Christians' believe as well) and,
2. Through undergoing a post-mortem meritorious punishment that atones for the current sin of unbelief (bold, for emphasis); I don't believe the Bible teaches this; that after death salvation can be merited, earned, paid for by personal suffering, atoned for by personal suffering, or even acquired, as it will no longer be offered! For those who who had rejected the Gospel about Jesus---which is preached (proclaimed, offered) only during this present age---it will be too late.
Any comments (from anyone) to #2 above?
2. In this life there is one repentance to belief in one Gospel. The "correction" of not believing it is to believe it. [starts my point #2 in my post, sorry, I should have had A. & B. or something]....
There is just one correction to disbelieving the Gospel: obeying God's command to believe it.
I wrote:
If, as you say, the sin unbelief will be "corrected" in the afterlife and in the age to come---why wasn't this preached as integral TO the Gospel? Something this important should at least be a part of one of Jesus' teachings---but He never alluded to any such thing. Neither Jesus, Paul, Peter, nor anyone else in the NT offered post-mortem belief unto salvation as an option. I challenge you or anyone to show me where they offered it....
You replied:
Why would they "offer post-mortem belief" to the living? They wanted ante-mortem discipleship in their hearers so that they could be enabled to live righteous lives through Christ's sacrifice, and to avoid such a severe mercy.
I agree that believing the Gospel is "ante-mortem repentance"...as people repent and believe the Gospel before they die. This Gospel is preached only during--THIS--present age.
What is the "severe mercy to be avoided" you're talking about?
You haven't provided one single verse that says the Gospel includes that salvation can be obtained after death. Not one sermon from Acts, one saying by Jesus in the Gospels, and no teaching about it in the rest of the NT. I submit you can't provide it because it isn't there!
I wrote::
The Bible does NOT say, "For God so loved the world that He gave His Only Begotten Son, that whoever believes on Him---'either in this life or the next'---will not perish---'as no one WILL perish'---but have everlasting life"
You replied:
John didn't write this because it is untrue. Those who do not become disciples in this life will perish, that is, become lost (same Greek word). But the lost can be found!
Jesus said the good shepherd would seek for the lost sheep until he finds it.
The loving father said, "This my son was dead and is alive ---- was lost and is found.
1. The lost sheep that Jesus sought and found had not died.
2. The Parable of the Prodigal Son is not about the eschatological themes of the resurrection of the dead and/or final judgment.
3. John 3:16
could potentially read "...that whoever believes in Him will not
'be lost'....". Translated like this, the meaning would be of losing one's soul (life, being, personal existence) = perishing. In context "perish" is the preferred translation. Otherwise, several extra English words would have to be added to convey the meaning.
4. Jesus was sent to the lost sheep or house of Israel. With the exception of His disciples, the remnant of Israel; those He came to were lost---while yet alive---they had NOT perished (died).
I wrote:
Don't you think John should have made at least some sort of remote "hints" in this most Primary of Gospel Verses?
You replied:
The argument from absence is not valid.
I strongly disagree: An Argument from Absence (or silence) is QUITE valid. The burden of proof is in your court!
There are plenty of other scriptures that make the point. One either accepts them, ignores them, or explains them away.
Examining just one passage for now:
So then, just as through one offence, condemnation of all people resulted, so also through one righteous act, justification of life of all people resulted.
{Rom 5:18}
It has pointed out that the word "all" in the New Testament doesn't always mean "all". That is true. But if literally everyone is included in the condemnation from Adam and Eve's offence, then literally everyone must be included in justification of life.
The Bible teaches all who are
in Adam die and all who are
in Christ will live; this is for sure. The above passage does not conclusively support, nor clearly state, what you believe it says.
But Paul elaborates further:
For just as through the disobedience (lit. "not listening") of the one person, the many were constituted sinners, so also through the obedience (lit. "listening") of the one, the many will be constituted righteous. {Rom 5:19}
When the one person Adam, didn't listen to God's instruction, and ate from the tree of knowledge of good and evil, the many, that is (everyone else among mankind who would be their offspring) were constituted sinners. Not just "many", but "the many" ----- everyone else.
Likewise by the obedience of the one person Christ in sacrificing Himself on the cross, the many, that is, everyone else, will be (future tense in Greek) constituted righteous.
The Greek can also mean "inattention" and "[paying] attention". To the Hebrew mind paying attention ("true hearing") is accompanied with obedience to what was said.
The doctrine of Original Sin says people are born constitutionally guilty due to Adam's sin; that they both inherit and partake of Adam's guilt and sin themselves as a result [by nature]. Christ "listened" to His Father's voice (and obeyed it). His obedience (listening to God and obeying Him) is NOT automatically handed down to the human race in an 'Augustinian Original Sin way'. Apparently you believe such to be the case as you say "everyone else = the many." It seems you've taken Augustine's 'framework' and applied it across the board but in reverse order. If so, I not only disagree with Augustine's concept of Original Sin but with your applying an Augustinian concept to Christ and all humanity, as it seems you've done.
Lastly,
Do you---or do you not---believe that those who reject Jesus (the Gospel) before they die will be punished for this after death?
And do you---or do you not---believe this sin can [then] be atoned for by those who had committed it?
I would appreciate direct answers.
Thanks,
Rick