but I would be interested to know how Mark thinks God has free will. I am yet to understand how His being "outside of time" fixes this problem.
When I say God has free will, I mean it in the ordinary sense of Libertarian free will. There are no constraints acting upon whatever God does. There are no influences acting upon what He does.
Being outside of time is only to define God as He is apart from His creation. Time is a created thing. How can we even begin to think that God is subject to His creation? If God chooses to interact in time with His creation He is certainly able to do so.
Does this effect His decree? If it does, the logical argument is simply that God decreed to interact in time. I do not see any problem with any of this for God, and I see no problems as far as it affecting His freedom in any way.
According to the position taken by the Calvinist side of the discussion, the person unregenerate has no choice. It is maintained he is "dead" and unable to choose God. When regenerated, grace is irresistible and he will always choose God. Where does the Calvinist see there are ever two real (not just apparent) choices?
The unregenerate act according to their nature, and hence choose accordingly. The regenerate, having a new nature then act within the new principals of the new nature and hence choose accordingly.
People choose according to their natures, and there is nothing apparent about it. Both are real, and both really act according to their natures. What is there not to understand?
Dead natures spiritually choose dead things according to their dead spiritual nature, hence sin, unbelief, pride, anger, adultery, lying etc
Alive natures spiritually choose alive things according to their new alive spiritual nature, hence righteousness, faith, repentance, humility, gentleness, sobriety, honesty etc.
It is not complicated Homer.
According to the Calvinist view of God and His Meticulous Sovereignty, He whatsoever comes to pass is God's will (secret, decretive will). Yet how do we understand this text, if this view is correct? It says God was not well pleased, but why not? Isn't this part of His divine plan for these people, if Meticulous Sovereignty is true?
This is just such an ignorant misunderstanding of How God chooses to indulge us in time, for the purpose of speaking to us in ways we can grasp His preceptive will. It could be likened to baby talk.
The fancy term is anthropomorphic language.
The Bible is full of such baby speak. It helps us get a fix on God's will.
It is not meant to paint God as some kind of buffoon like Open Theism tends to present Him, and this question asserts by the board Open Theist.
It is ignorance of who God is an how He chooses at times to communicate with us at the level we can perceive some things about God.
Asking why God should ask such things when He ordains everything is like saying that God didn't have a clue where Adam was in the garden when He asked Adam where He was.
I have even heard Open Theists say that God didn't know where Adam was when Adam hid from Him in the garden.
Believe such things if you want to, but please do not pass it off as the God of the Bible is all I am saying.
Mark