Prophet for Matt. 2:23

[Guest]

And he came and dwelt in a city called Nazareth: that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the prophets, He shall be called a Nazarene.

Does anybody know which prophet? The traditional answer that i am familiar with is that the root word is branch, referring to Isaiah 11. But from the context i like the interpretation that he is to be from Nazareth, thats why he is called a nazarene. Anyone got any ideas on this?

[Guest]

This is a commentary I found byt Matthew Henry, Perhaps it will help.

In this is said to be fulfilled what was spoken by the prophets, He shall be called a Nazarene. Which may be looked upon, (1.) As a man of honour and dignity, though primarily it signifies no more than a man of Nazareth; there is an allusion or mystery in speaking it, speaking Christ to be, [1.] The Man, the Branch, spoken of, Isa. 11:1. The word there is Netzar, which signifies either a branch, or the city of Nazareth; in being denominated from that city, he is declared to be that Branch. [2.] It speaks him to be the great Nazarite; of whom the legal Nazarites were a type and figure (especially Samson, Jdg. 13:5), and Joseph, who is called a Nazarite among his brethren (Gen. 49:26), and to whom that which was prescribed concerning the Nazarites, has reference, Num. 6:2, etc. Not that Christ was, strictly, a Nazarite, for he drank wine, and touched dead bodies; but he was eminently so, both as he was singularly holy, and as he was by a solemn designation and dedication set apart to the honour of God in the work of our redemption, as Samson was to save Israel. And it is a name we have all reason to rejoice in, and to know him by. Or, (2.) As a name of reproach and contempt. To be called a Nazarene, was to be called a despicable man, a man from whom no good was to be expected, and to whom no respect was to be paid. The devil first fastened this name upon Christ, to render him mean, and prejudice people against him, and it stuck as a nickname to him and his followers. Now this was not particularly foretold by any one prophet, but, in general, it was spoken by the prophets, that he should be despised and rejected of men (Isa. 53:2, 3), a Worm, and no man (Ps. 22:6, 7), that he should be an Alien to his brethren Ps. 69:7, 8. Let no name of reproach for religion’s sake seem hard to us, when our Master was himself called a Nazarene.

Robin

[Guest]

thanks rob..........that was the answer i referred to in my original question.........i would like to see somewhere where Netzer is used of as Nazareth.........then it would seem more probable..........

[Guest]

Hello, Jim,

For what it's worth, archaeological evidence for habitation at Nazareth appears to go back to the Hellenistic period at best (and even that early of a date may be debatable). Nazareth may not have even existed as a settlement during the prophetic era. So, it is not surprising that there apparently is no mention of Nazareth in the Hebrew bible.

Shalom,
Emmet

[Guest]

shalom emmet
It should be surprising that there is no mention..........because Matthew says clearly that the prophets spoke of this. But that is my question..................which prophet????

[Guest]

Does anybody know which prophet? The traditional answer that i am familiar with is that the root word is branch, referring to Isaiah 11. But from the context i like the interpretation that he is to be from Nazareth, thats why he is called a nazarene. Anyone got any ideas on this?

Note that Matthew references multiple prophets:

Matthew 2:23
He came to a town called Nazareth and lived there. Then what had been spoken by the prophets was fulfilled, that Jesus would be called a Nazarene

The online NET bible (http://net.bible.org/bible.php?book=Mat&chapter=2#n40) has the following translator's note on verse 23:

The Greek could be indirect discourse (as in the text), or direct discourse (“he will be called a Nazarene”). Judging by the difficulty of finding OT quotations (as implied in the plural “prophets”) to match the wording here, it appears that the author was using a current expression of scorn that conceptually (but not verbally) found its roots in the OT.

Matthew may have been using a common derogatory phrase of the time to point to many OT scriptures that described the Messiah despised and insignificant. Here's one of the more eloquently, specific examples:

Isaiah 53:3
He was despised and rejected by people, one who experienced pain and was acquainted with illness; people hid their faces from him;he was despised, and we considered him insignificant.

The derogatory nature of calling someone a Nazarene may be due to the stereotype of the area of Galilee as backwoods or "hic". It also may be that because the followers of Christ were called "Nazarenes" contemptously by those in religious power and authority.

Dave

[Guest]

Hi, Jim,

Thanks for your reply.

When Matthew speaks of the prophets, it may be referring to not only the Isaiah 11:1 text, but also to parallel imagery in Jeremiah 23:5 & 33:15 and Zechariah 3:8 & 6:12. However, the Hebrew word used in these texts is not netzer, as in Isaiah; furthermore, for what it is worth, the same distinction in diction is preserved in the Septuagint (except for Jeremiah 33:15, which I was not able to verify either way with the tools I have available to me here at work). But Matthew may nevertheless have been thinking in less anal-retentive terms.

Speaking of which, it is not terribly surprising if Matthew should make a reference that is not actually related to the manifest intent or content of the Hebrew bible itself. Writers in the period of late antiquity are often enough willing to reference biblical text in casual, poetic, and/or tangential ways, with little or no concern for its original context - particularly in order to suit their own interests and/or circumstances.

Shalom,
Emmet

[Guest]

Dave and Emmet.........

I like both of those answers...........i think those are good solutions...........

I too forgot about the septuagint use, since they seemed to quote alot from it.......that may have something to do with it. I know for example, that in the sept. there are some verses not in the masoretic (discovered this a while ago studying Exodus)

Thanks guys.........

[Guest]

I too forgot about the septuagint use, since they seemed to quote alot from it.......that may have something to do with it. I know for example, that in the sept. there are some verses not in the masoretic (discovered this a while ago studying Exodus)

The most well known is the virgin birth which is specifically translated that way in the Septuagint but in the masoretic text is called "maiden" which could be virgin but does'nt have to be.