Baptism - Is the Text of Matt. 28:19 Original?

User avatar
_Evangelion
Posts: 151
Joined: Wed May 24, 2006 3:58 pm
Location: Black Country, UK (ex-Australia)

Re: Baptism - Is the Text of Matt. 28:19 Original?

Post by _Evangelion » Thu Jul 06, 2006 2:59 pm

Royal Oddball 2:9 wrote:The following articles set forth the idea that the original text of Matthew 28:19 was hijacked and twisted by the RCC in the second century to read what it does today, namely from "baptizing them in my name" to "baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit."
Actually, the RCC did not exist in the 2nd Century. She did not even exist in the 3rd, 4th or 5th Centuries.

The RCC has her roots in the 7th Century, at which stage she was simply a small part of a larger church which included the Eastern and Western remnants of the Roman Empire.

The true RCC (as we know it today) is an ancient institution which emerged from the wreckage of the Great Schism in AD 1054, after the Eastern churches had broken away to become what is now the Orthodox Church.

She did not exist before that time.
Last edited by _BJDedera on Wed Dec 31, 1969 7:00 pm, edited 0 times in total.
Reason:
People demand freedom of speech as a compensation for the freedom of thought which they seldom use.

Søren Kierkegaard

User avatar
_SoaringEagle
Posts: 285
Joined: Sat Nov 19, 2005 10:40 pm
Location: Louisville, KY

Post by _SoaringEagle » Thu Jul 06, 2006 3:17 pm

Are you saying the apostles were in error? Are you saying that those who prefer to baptize in Jesus' name (as I do) are in error for demanding "a formula" even though the apostles obviously did not baptize any other way?


No, I don't think the apostles were in error, nor am I saying they were. I do think that those who prefer to baptize in Jesus' name are indeed mistaken as far as the spoken formula goes. Here is why:

1) Acts 2:38," in the name of Jesus Christ

2) Acts 8:16, in the name of the Lord Jesus
2) Acts 19:5, in the name of the Lord Jesus."

3) Acts 10:48, in the name of the Lord

4) Acts 22:16, "And now why do you delay? Arise, and be baptized, and wash away your sins, calling on His name.

Notice there are three, possibly four formulas above. None of them says the anyone was baptized in Jesus name as the verbal formula. So if we do not wish to baptize using Matt 28:19 as the verbal formula, which one of the three if not four formulas found in Acts should we use?
Last edited by Guest on Wed Dec 31, 1969 7:00 pm, edited 0 times in total.
Reason:

User avatar
_Royal Oddball 2:9
Posts: 45
Joined: Tue May 30, 2006 2:05 pm
Location: Beaumont, TX

Re: Baptism - Is the Text of Matt. 28:19 Original?

Post by _Royal Oddball 2:9 » Thu Jul 06, 2006 3:22 pm

Evangelion wrote:Additionally, I know of no reason for rejecting it on textual grounds; all the evidence points towards its veracity.
All the evidence? It seems to me that you have to toss out plenty of primary evidence in order to make that statement.
Evangelion wrote:Actually, the RCC did not exist in the 2nd Century. She did not even exist in the 3rd, 4th or 5th Centuries.

The RCC has her roots in the 7th Century, at which stage she was simply a small part of a larger church which included the Eastern and Western remnants of the Roman Empire.

The true RCC (as we know it today) is an ancient institution which emerged from the wreckage of the Great Schism in AD 1054, after the Eastern churches had broken away to become what is now the Orthodox Church.

She did not exist before that time.
Somewhat true, until you consider that the Roman Catholic Church considers herself the true and original church that began on the Day of Pentecost. And I believe most Protestants point to Constantine's establishment of Christianity as the state religion as the beginning of the RCC.
Last edited by _extant on Wed Dec 31, 1969 7:00 pm, edited 0 times in total.
Reason:
But ye are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people; that ye should shew forth the praises of him who hath called you out of darkness into his marvellous light. I Peter 2:9

User avatar
_Royal Oddball 2:9
Posts: 45
Joined: Tue May 30, 2006 2:05 pm
Location: Beaumont, TX

Post by _Royal Oddball 2:9 » Thu Jul 06, 2006 3:32 pm

SoaringEagle wrote:No, I don't think the apostles were in error, nor am I saying they were. I do think that those who prefer to baptize in Jesus' name are indeed mistaken as far as the spoken formula goes. Here is why:

1) Acts 2:38," in the name of Jesus Christ

2) Acts 8:16, in the name of the Lord Jesus
2) Acts 19:5, in the name of the Lord Jesus."

3) Acts 10:48, in the name of the Lord

4) Acts 22:16, "And now why do you delay? Arise, and be baptized, and wash away your sins, calling on His name.

Notice there are three, possibly four formulas above. None of them says the anyone was baptized in Jesus name as the verbal formula. So if we do not wish to baptize using Matt 28:19 as the verbal formula, which one of the three if not four formulas found in Acts should we use?
I don't think it's necessary to get really picky about what is said over the baptism, as long as the authority of Jesus Christ is established at the time of the baptism. There could be numerous ways to do that, and all of the above verses you cited fulfill that, I believe, better than the traditional formula.

BTW, those who advocate baptism in Jesus' name, in application, repeat word for word the instructions given in Acts 2:38. More specifically, my pastor always said, "So-and-so, because of your obedience to the word of God, I now baptize you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of your sins." Just wanted to make you aware of that to avoid further confusion.

To everyone who's discussing this topic with me -- thanks so much for taking the time to do so! I always enjoy a healthy debate!
Last edited by _extant on Thu Jul 06, 2006 3:59 pm, edited 2 times in total.
Reason:
But ye are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people; that ye should shew forth the praises of him who hath called you out of darkness into his marvellous light. I Peter 2:9

User avatar
_Evangelion
Posts: 151
Joined: Wed May 24, 2006 3:58 pm
Location: Black Country, UK (ex-Australia)

Re: Baptism - Is the Text of Matt. 28:19 Original?

Post by _Evangelion » Thu Jul 06, 2006 3:33 pm

Royal Oddball 2:9 wrote:
Evangelion wrote:Additionally, I know of no reason for rejecting it on textual grounds; all the evidence points towards its veracity.
All the evidence? It seems to me that you have to toss out plenty of primary evidence in order to make that statement.
I don't think so. The manuscript evidence is distinctly in its favour.
Evangelion wrote:Actually, the RCC did not exist in the 2nd Century. She did not even exist in the 3rd, 4th or 5th Centuries.

The RCC has her roots in the 7th Century, at which stage she was simply a small part of a larger church which included the Eastern and Western remnants of the Roman Empire.

The true RCC (as we know it today) is an ancient institution which emerged from the wreckage of the Great Schism in AD 1054, after the Eastern churches had broken away to become what is now the Orthodox Church.

She did not exist before that time.
Somewhat true, until you consider that the Roman Catholic Church considers herself the true and original church that began on the Day of Pentecost.
Well, I take the Catholic Church's claims on this subject about as seriously as I take the JWs' claims that they're the only people with the true interpretation of God's Word.
And I believe most Protestants point to Constantine's establishment of Christianity as the state religion as the beginning of the RCC.
Any Protestant who does this is wrong, on two grounds:
  • Constantine did not establish Christianity as the state religion; he merely introduced a number of policies that favoured it. Christianity did not become the state religion until AD379, when it was instituted by the Christian emperor Theodosius.
  • The church was still formulating her doctrines in Constantine's day; indeed, he presided over the most divisive and catastrophic Christological debates of all time: the Arian controversy.
I could add more on this subject, but the two points above will suffice for the moment.
Last edited by _BJDedera on Thu Jul 06, 2006 11:23 pm, edited 1 time in total.
Reason:
People demand freedom of speech as a compensation for the freedom of thought which they seldom use.

Søren Kierkegaard

User avatar
_Royal Oddball 2:9
Posts: 45
Joined: Tue May 30, 2006 2:05 pm
Location: Beaumont, TX

Post by _Royal Oddball 2:9 » Thu Jul 06, 2006 3:35 pm

Sorry - I'm having trouble with the quotes.
Last edited by _extant on Wed Dec 31, 1969 7:00 pm, edited 0 times in total.
Reason:
But ye are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people; that ye should shew forth the praises of him who hath called you out of darkness into his marvellous light. I Peter 2:9

User avatar
_Royal Oddball 2:9
Posts: 45
Joined: Tue May 30, 2006 2:05 pm
Location: Beaumont, TX

Re: Baptism - Is the Text of Matt. 28:19 Original?

Post by _Royal Oddball 2:9 » Thu Jul 06, 2006 3:47 pm

Evangelion wrote: I don't think so. The manuscript evidence is distinctly in its favour.
Can you clarify what you mean by "manuscript evidence"?
Evangelion wrote:Well, I take the Catholic Church's claims on this subject about as seriously as I take the JWs' claims that they're the only people with the true interpretation of God's WOrd.
Well, we're definitely in agreement there, but I think it's significant that the Catholic Church would refer to the church in the second century as "the Catholic Church." Remember, apostasy and anti-christs, precursors to the RCC, were creeping into the church before the end of the NT.
Evangelion wrote: Any Protestant who does this is wrong, on two grounds:
  • Constantine did not establish Christianity as the state religion; he merely introduced a number of policies that favoured it. Christianity did not become the state religion until AD379, when it was instituted by the Christian emperor Theodosius.
  • The church was still formulating her doctrines in Constantine's day; indeed, he presided over the most divisive and catastrophic Christological debates of all time: the Arian controversy.
I could add more on this subject, but the two points above will suffice for the moment.
Okay, assuming your history is correct here, when Theodosius established Christianity as the state religion in 379AD, under which denomination was it established? Was it not referred to as the Holy Roman Catholic Church?

And, assuming the Catholic Encyclopedia is simply making things up, there're still plenty of other documents that support this claim, particularly the Eusebian texts. What do you make of those?

Also, what do you make of the fact that none of the baptisms recorded in the NT mention something similar to "Father-Son-Holy Spirit" but rather something along the lines of "Jesus Christ" or the "name of the Lord"? Assuming Matt. 28:19 is original, none of the apostles did what Jesus said. Can you give me a better reason for that other than my argument that Matt. 28:19 wasn't what Jesus told them to do?
Last edited by _extant on Wed Dec 31, 1969 7:00 pm, edited 0 times in total.
Reason:
But ye are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people; that ye should shew forth the praises of him who hath called you out of darkness into his marvellous light. I Peter 2:9

User avatar
_JC
Posts: 196
Joined: Thu Feb 16, 2006 12:18 pm

Post by _JC » Thu Jul 06, 2006 4:39 pm

Royal Oddball 2:9, here's a defense of the passage from James Holding:

http://www.tektonics.org/lp/matt2819.html
Last edited by Guest on Wed Dec 31, 1969 7:00 pm, edited 0 times in total.
Reason:

User avatar
_Evangelion
Posts: 151
Joined: Wed May 24, 2006 3:58 pm
Location: Black Country, UK (ex-Australia)

Re: Baptism - Is the Text of Matt. 28:19 Original?

Post by _Evangelion » Thu Jul 06, 2006 4:50 pm

Royal Oddball 2:9 wrote:
Evangelion wrote: I don't think so. The manuscript evidence is distinctly in its favour.
Can you clarify what you mean by "manuscript evidence"?
I mean the Greek manuscripts from which our Bible was translated.
Evangelion wrote:Well, I take the Catholic Church's claims on this subject about as seriously as I take the JWs' claims that they're the only people with the true interpretation of God's WOrd.
Well, we're definitely in agreement there, but I think it's significant that the Catholic Church would refer to the church in the second century as "the Catholic Church."
I don't. Firstly, there was no "Catholic Church" as we know it today. Secondly, the word "catholic" comes from a Greek word, and simply means "universal", "broad", "comprehensive", or general."

We use it today in reference to the Catholic Church, but in the era of Eusebius it had no such connotation; it was simply a common, everyday word which was used in religuous and secular contexts.

It did not refer to a specific denomination.
Remember, apostasy and anti-christs, precursors to the RCC, were creeping into the church before the end of the NT.
Very true.
Evangelion wrote:Any Protestant who does this is wrong, on two grounds:
  • Constantine did not establish Christianity as the state religion; he merely introduced a number of policies that favoured it. Christianity did not become the state religion until AD379, when it was instituted by the Christian emperor Theodosius.
  • The church was still formulating her doctrines in Constantine's day; indeed, he presided over the most divisive and catastrophic Christological debates of all time: the Arian controversy.
I could add more on this subject, but the two points above will suffice for the moment.
Okay, assuming your history is correct here, when Theodosius established Christianity as the state religion in 379AD, under which denomination was it established?
It was not established under any denomination at all, for there were no distinct denominations at this time (though there were a handful of heretical sects and cults.)

Theology was still in a state of flux, the official doctrine of the nature of Christ had not yet been agreed on, and the official definition of the Trinity was still a long way off. (It was finally created at the Council of Constantinople in AD 381, by the three Cappadocians: Basil the Great, Gregory Nazianzus, and Gregory of Nyssa.)

The church was a heterodox entity during the 3rd and 4th Centuries; by this I mean that it tolerated a variety of different doctrines, including some that were mutually exclusive. There was no official document which stated precisely what you had to believe in order to be called a true Christian.

Even Eusebius himself had heretical leanings; he favoured the Arians during the Council of Nicea, and for many years afterwards. Yet despite this, he remained at the emperor's side as a trusted advisor.
Was it not referred to as the Holy Roman Catholic Church?
No. The first historical reference to a "Holy Roman Catholic Church" appears in the 8th Century, with the rise of the emperor Charlemagne. He established the "Holy Roman Empire" which gave birth to the entity we know today as the Roman Catholic Church. In Charlemagne's day, that church was still part of a larger body; this all changed in the Great Schism, when the Catholic Church emerged as an independent body in her own right.
And, assuming the Catholic Encyclopedia is simply making things up, there're still plenty of other documents that support this claim, particularly the Eusebian texts. What do you make of those?
I refer you to my previous comments about the meaning of the word "catholic." In Eusebius' day, it did not mean what it generally means to modern readers. People were spoken of as belonging to the "catholic church" because there was only one church, and everyone belonged to it; ergo, it was the "universal" (or "catholic") church.

Look up "catholic" in a dictionary ([url=http://dictionary.reference.com/search?q=catholic]here[/ur], for example) and you'll see that I'm right about the meaning of this word.
Also, what do you make of the fact that none of the baptisms recorded in the NT mention something similar to "Father-Son-Holy Spirit" but rather something along the lines of "Jesus Christ" or the "name of the Lord"? Assuming Matt. 28:19 is original, none of the apostles did what Jesus said. Can you give me a better reason for that other than my argument that Matt. 28:19 wasn't what Jesus told them to do?
Yes. I simply accept that the Bible often uses a form of shorthand when recording events. It does not always tell us every word that somebody spoke, or every single action that they performed.

Take Acts 2, for example. We are told that Peter preached to the crowd; we are even told many of the things that he said. But we would be wrong to assume that this is all he said, for the later verses of the chapter tell us that "many other words did he testify and exhort, saying, Save yourselves from this untoward generation."

It is the same with the New Testament baptisms. Sometimes we are told exactly what they said, as in Acts 8:37:
  • And Philip said, If thou believest with all thine heart, thou mayest. And he answered and said, I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God.
No mention of being baptised in Jesus' name here, by the way - or even in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit!

Sometimes we are not told what they said, as in Acts 16:33:
  • And he took them the same hour of the night, and washed their stripes; and was baptized, he and all his, straightway.
No mention of any spoken formula whatsoever!

The bottom line is that the Bible sometime uses abbreviations wherever the writers considered this expedient and appropriate. I personally believe that in many cases, the phrase "baptised in the name of Jesus" is merely a short-hand description of the full baptismal formula in Matthew 28.

However, taking into account the example of Philip in Acts 8:37, I am equally aware that on some occasions the formula was not used at all.

By the same token, I have no doubt that some people were baptised with a formula which merely mentioned Jesus' name, ie. "I baptise you in the name of Jesus." :D
Last edited by _BJDedera on Wed Dec 31, 1969 7:00 pm, edited 0 times in total.
Reason:
People demand freedom of speech as a compensation for the freedom of thought which they seldom use.

Søren Kierkegaard

User avatar
_Royal Oddball 2:9
Posts: 45
Joined: Tue May 30, 2006 2:05 pm
Location: Beaumont, TX

Post by _Royal Oddball 2:9 » Thu Jul 06, 2006 5:27 pm

JC - That's a quite a long article! Give me a chance to read it and then perhaps we can discuss it if you'd like. A cursory examination makes me think that Ploughman's arguments weren't as invalid as Holding would have liked them to be. He makes some absurd counterarguments that don't amount to much more than red herrings and smokescreens, in my opinion, particularly when arguing against Ploughman's tests.
Last edited by _extant on Wed Dec 31, 1969 7:00 pm, edited 0 times in total.
Reason:
But ye are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people; that ye should shew forth the praises of him who hath called you out of darkness into his marvellous light. I Peter 2:9

Post Reply

Return to “Miscellaneous”