Christ is eternally subordinate?

[21centpilgrim]

Does the scripture teach that Christ is eternally subordinate to the Father? I understand subordinate to mean - subject and under the authority of another. I think that in the earthly ministry of Jesus it is obvious that He was subordinate to the Father. This is in function and relation and not in nature and being, Which would be Arianism.
The question I have is that is it eternal?
1 Cor. 15 28 seems to say yes - When all things are subjected to Him, then the Son Himself also will be subjected to the One who subjected all things to Him, so that God may be all in all.
Other takes on this?

[steve7150]

The question I have is that is it eternal?
1 Cor. 15 28 seems to say yes - When all things are subjected to Him, then the Son Himself also will be subjected to the One who subjected all things to Him, so that God may be all in all.
Other takes on this?







Earthly fathers are the head of the family until they die or are incapacitated but neither will happen to Father God , so yes i think it is implied that Christ is eternally subordinate to his Father.

[BrotherAlan]

Sacred Scripture reveals to us that, "In the beginning was the Word....and the Word was God." (Jn 1:1) And, "The Word was made flesh, and dwelt amongst us." (John 1:14) Now, Jesus Christ is the Word.

Thus, Jesus Christ is a Divine Person with two natures, a divine nature and a human nature. Insofar as Jesus Christ is divine, He is perfectly equal to the Father. Thus, the Gospels teach us that, when Christ revealed that God is His Father, He was "making Himself equal with God [the Father]." (John 5:18) [Note: The Greek word used for “equal” is ἴσον (the accusative case of ἴσος); this is the same word used by Euclid, the Greek mathematician, to indicate absolute equality of things.]

But, since Christ also has a human nature, it can be said that, with respect to His human nature, He is subject to God the Father (even in heaven; for, Christ remains man forever, even in heaven). In 1 Cor. 15, Paul is writing in regard to Christ's human nature; and, it is in regard to Christ, as man, that Paul says He will be made subject to the Father (this is also the sense in which Christ Himself spoke when He said, "The Father is greater than I." (John 14:28)

But, simply speaking, since Christ is true God, He is perfectly equal to the Father.

In Christ,
BrotherAlan

"I and the Father are one." (John 10:30)

[steve7150]

In 1 Cor. 15, Paul is writing in regard to Christ's human nature; and, it is in regard to Christ, as man, that Paul says He will be made subject to the Father (this is also the sense in which Christ Himself spoke when He said, "The Father is greater than I." (John 14:28)





I am not aware that Paul explains or even alludes to this specification of only Christ's human nature being subject to the Father, only saying that Christ himself will be subject to the Father and that God will be "all in all." So it sounds like the final climax of everything in that statement.

[21centpilgrim]

I do not think it takes away from the deity of Christ to believe that Christ is eternally subject to the Father. Just as a wife is no less human than her husband to whom she is no submit to. 1Cor. 15 mentions nothing specific to Christ's earthy nature so it reads with a broad context that seems to indicate His whole nature. Just as 1 Cor. 11:3 "But I want you to understand that the head of every man is Christ, the head of a wife is her husband, and the head of Christ is God."
This does not seem to limit or describe Christ' earthly ministry or human nature only.

[Paidion]

But, simply speaking, since Christ is true God, He is perfectly equal to the Father.

If He is "perfectlly equal to the Father", then He would be omniscient. But Revelation 1:1 seems to indicate that this is not the case:

The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show to his servants what must soon take place; and he made it known by sending his angel to his servant John ...

This sentence seems to indicate that Jesus Christ had a revelation. God gave Him that revelation so that He could show His servants what would soon take place. Then Christ made the revelation known by sending his angel to John. This all took place around 90 A.D. (or a little prior to 70 A.D. if you preterists are right). In any case, it took place after Jesus was raised from the dead, when he lived in His resurrection body. He could not have known what these things were that were about to take place, for if He had known, it would have been unnecessary for God to have revealed it to Him.