I fully believe that the Kingdom was established at Christ's coming and is unfolding and growing all through time and there will be no end to the increase of it. The way this was to come about something the disciples were a little unclear on. But the Bible says that Jesus "opened their understanding, that they might understand the scriptures" (Luke 24:45)
But it still seems that just prior to his ascending to the Father they were still fuzzy on this. Is it possible that they asked when he would restore the kingdom and then he began to help them understand? So often dispensationalists bring this up and it seems possible to me that his opening their understanding came after their kingdom question.
When did Jesus open the disciples' understanding?
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AaronBDisney
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Re: When did Jesus open the disciples' understanding?
Dispensationalists like to point out that Jesus did not correct their notions, in Acts 1:6-8, but that claim fails to give adequate consideration to the facts of the case. The disciples' inquiry did not presuppose a false premise, and did not need to be corrected. The disciples had every valid reason for expecting God to restore the kingdom to Israel. This is really what He promised to do and what He has done. The disciples, at this point, did not fully know the nature of "the kingdom," nor did they understand the breadth of the term "Israel." Such understanding requires a degree of spiritual perception that I do not think they possessed prior to Pentecost.
His answer, however, was entirely relevant to their question. They had asked if this was the time for the restoration of the kingdom to Israel, and His answer was that the exact time could not be known to them in advance, but when it would happen (which it did, ten days later), they would have their work cut out for them. He told them that the power (of the kingdom—Mark 9:1) would come upon them (the remnant of Israel), and they would expand His movement (the kingdom) by bearing witness to the uttermost parts of the earth (i.e., in order to extend the kingdom to include the Gentile element of Israel).
Of course, I don't think that they understood His answer at that time in the sense that they later came to understand it, but it was not necessary for Jesus to explain it further or disabuse them of any residual Jewish prejudices at that moment. Many of their prejudices had yet to be purged from them in the subsequent years of learning. Jesus was no doubt following, in this case, the same policy as that which He had announced in John 16:12-13. He said there were things He would not be able to tell them because of their present, limited, spiritual capacity, but that the Holy Spirit would come and lead them into greater truths.
When Jesus opened their understanding that they might understand the scriptures, this can readily mean two different things (though probably not both). First, it could mean that Jesus granted them an innate charismatic capacity of insight, which would serve them for the rest of their lives in the perception of the true meaning of the scriptures. Second, it could mean that Jesus actually took them to specific key passages and explained them—thereby "opening their understanding." In any case, it would not be safe to assume that, at that very moment, a total familiarity with every passage and its correct meaning was simply downloaded into their consciousness. I think they still had a lifetime of study and revelation to look forward to. Thus, at the time of the ascension, they may have had great new insights into certain scriptures without necessarily having understood all things which the Holy Spirit had yet to show them.
His answer, however, was entirely relevant to their question. They had asked if this was the time for the restoration of the kingdom to Israel, and His answer was that the exact time could not be known to them in advance, but when it would happen (which it did, ten days later), they would have their work cut out for them. He told them that the power (of the kingdom—Mark 9:1) would come upon them (the remnant of Israel), and they would expand His movement (the kingdom) by bearing witness to the uttermost parts of the earth (i.e., in order to extend the kingdom to include the Gentile element of Israel).
Of course, I don't think that they understood His answer at that time in the sense that they later came to understand it, but it was not necessary for Jesus to explain it further or disabuse them of any residual Jewish prejudices at that moment. Many of their prejudices had yet to be purged from them in the subsequent years of learning. Jesus was no doubt following, in this case, the same policy as that which He had announced in John 16:12-13. He said there were things He would not be able to tell them because of their present, limited, spiritual capacity, but that the Holy Spirit would come and lead them into greater truths.
When Jesus opened their understanding that they might understand the scriptures, this can readily mean two different things (though probably not both). First, it could mean that Jesus granted them an innate charismatic capacity of insight, which would serve them for the rest of their lives in the perception of the true meaning of the scriptures. Second, it could mean that Jesus actually took them to specific key passages and explained them—thereby "opening their understanding." In any case, it would not be safe to assume that, at that very moment, a total familiarity with every passage and its correct meaning was simply downloaded into their consciousness. I think they still had a lifetime of study and revelation to look forward to. Thus, at the time of the ascension, they may have had great new insights into certain scriptures without necessarily having understood all things which the Holy Spirit had yet to show them.
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AaronBDisney
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- Joined: Thu Feb 05, 2009 12:13 am
Re: When did Jesus open the disciples' understanding?
Thanks, Steve. Great points (as always).
I've heard your comments when this is brought before you and always found them plenty adequate and considered this a weak point for the dispensationalists, yet it's one they always bring up.
It just kind of occurred to me that since this opening of their understanding was so late in the gospel of Luke and just prior to his ascending, that they may not have been all that baffled by his leaving them at that time. I thought it possible that the sudden lifting away was not altogether unexpected, but they may still have been in shock of it (as it seems they were) even shortly after it happened.
I do consider it to be a case where Jesus is expounding the scriptures and giving them training wheels into Spiritual application. It just seems to me that He would also show them that he was to be taken up to the Ancient of Days to receive a Kingdom gathered in by His church while he was opening their understanding.
I've heard your comments when this is brought before you and always found them plenty adequate and considered this a weak point for the dispensationalists, yet it's one they always bring up.
It just kind of occurred to me that since this opening of their understanding was so late in the gospel of Luke and just prior to his ascending, that they may not have been all that baffled by his leaving them at that time. I thought it possible that the sudden lifting away was not altogether unexpected, but they may still have been in shock of it (as it seems they were) even shortly after it happened.
I do consider it to be a case where Jesus is expounding the scriptures and giving them training wheels into Spiritual application. It just seems to me that He would also show them that he was to be taken up to the Ancient of Days to receive a Kingdom gathered in by His church while he was opening their understanding.