Two questions:NASB wrote:Romans 8:28 And we know that God causes all things to work together for good to those who love God, to those who are called according to [His] purpose. (NASB)
1. KJV adds "the called." On what basis do they do this, and what difference does it make? It makes it sound more Calvinistic (though depending on how you answer 2 below, it doesn't necessarily have to).
2. The comma would seem to make a difference here, too -- without a comma, it sounds like those who are "called" are a subset of those who love God (rather than simply a restatement of who does love Him). If so, then the calling involved here is not necessary, and could relate not to a calling to salvation/relationship with Him, but a calling to perform some part of His great plan, which would suggest that this is not a general promise to all Christians about all their work (in His will), but to those specifically called to perform a specific task for His purposes (His plans will not be thwarted.)
Any comments or elaboration?