Eph 1:4: He Chose Us (the Jews, that is)

[Guest]

Hello all,

I will make the bold claim that the oft-repeated phrase "chose us in Him before the foundation of the world" has nothing to do with Gentiles at all! Notice how Paul, as a Messianic Jew and and thus a part of those "who first trusted in Christ", shifts from first person personal prounouns (verses 3-12 where Paul enunciated the benefits of the Messiah for the Jews) to second person personal pronouns ("you") in verse 13. IMO, Gentile Christians were not even on Paul's mind until verse 13 (except for v. 1-2 of the intro).

3. Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who has blessed us with every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places in Christ,
4. Just as He chose us in Him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before Him in love,
5. Having predestined us to adoption as sons by Jesus Christ to Himself, according to the good pleasure of His will,
6. To the praise of the glory of His grace, by which He has made us accepted in the Beloved.
7. In Him we have redemption through His blood, the forgiveness of sins, according to the riches of His grace
8. Which He made to abound toward us in all wisdom and prudence,
9. Having made known to us the mystery of His will, according to His good pleasure which He purposed in Himself,
10. That in the dispensation of the fullness of the times He might gather together in one all things in Christ, both which are in heaven and which are on earth--in Him.
11. In Him also we have obtained an inheritance, being predestined according to the purpose of Him who works all things according to the counsel of His will,
12. That we who first trusted in Christ should be to the praise of His glory.
13. In Him you also trusted, after you heard the word of truth, the gospel of your salvation; in whom also, having believed, you were sealed with the Holy Spirit of promise,
14. Who is the guarantee of our inheritance until the redemption of the purchased possession, to the praise of His glory.

Early Church writer Tertullian agrees (I'm taking this from Roger Samsel of PFRS):

"Again, what Christ do the following words announce, when the Apostle says, 'That we should be to the praise of His glory, who first trusted in Christ?' Now, who could have first trusted — ie., previously trusted — in God, before His advent, besides Jews to whom Christ was previously announced from the beginning? He who was thus foretold, was also foretrusted. Hence, the Apostle refers the statement to himself, that is, to the Jews, in order that he may draw a distinction with respect to the Gentiles, (when he goes on to say:) 'In whom you also trusted, after that ye heard the word of truth, the gospel (of your salvation); in whom ye believed, and were sealed with His Holy Spirit of promise'." (Tertullian, Against Marcion, xvii)
http://www.pfrs.org/commentary/eph1_3.html

Thoughts?

Brian

[Guest]

Interesting. If it can be demonstrated from the context of the rest of the book, it could be established as correct. Do they try and do this?