Thank you for your reply.
The Israeli state followed the opinion of the Chief Sephardi rabbi (who nevertheless required a pro forma conversion of Ethiopian Jewish immigrants). Jewish opinion is not always monolithic, however, and in some rabbinic jurisdictions, marrying an Ethiopian Jew involves the mikveh and token bloodletting (for pre-circumcised males) required of Gentile converts.The information regarding the Falashian Jews comes from the State of Israel that stated in 1975 they were official Jews of the Diaspora.
Given the fundamental role of the state of Israel as a refuge for Jewish people(s), it is understandable that the Israeli government should reach its wing to shelter the present-day Ethiopian Jews. But its decision should not be seen as a conclusive resolution to the historical questions surrounding the origins of the Ethiopian Jewish community.
We must acknowledge the challenges besetting the Hebrew text as well, both in its formation and its transmission. I did allude to problems and promiscuities in the post-exilic Palestinian Jewish arena, from which we find (at least) the formation of the latter OT.Now you make the assertion that these diaspora Jews had a murky background in a heathen flood... a biblical transmogrified text in an alien tongue. Are you talking about the Hebrew text also since it also has a murky background, suffering the wages of being captives in foreign lands, with foreign religions, foreign tongues....and also have a transmogrified Bible?
Yet when we come to diaspora Judaism, we field not only basic difficulties inherent to the original text itself, but potentially a further dividend of alienation and transmogrification. Each margin of distance and exotic influence complicates the task of correctly engaging the text. Thus, the propriety of increased caution when engaging diasporic sources.
Pardon my asking - where did you obtain this list of "canon guidelines"?The canon guidelines of Jewish Hebrew text is that it is to be 1) in Hebrew, 2) follow the Torah, 3) be before Ezra (400BC) and written from within Palestine. Daniel is partly in Aramaic and some of Daniel is after Ezra. It appears that even the Pharisaical Jews can not stay within their own scripture canon guidelines but because Daniel is so "Jewish" it has to be included in its entirety.
It is not a given that the folks responsible for the Dead Sea Scrolls were Essenes, although that is a popular theory. From the content of the Scrolls, we may gather that the people responsible for them had deep religious interest, and we may imagine that their religious thought and behavior correlated to some extent with those documents that we find several copies of amongst their literary remains.As for the Essenes, I guess your sources are in deep contrast to mine because they are described as very pious religious Jews who set themselves apart from the politics of the Pharisees and the Sadducees in Jerusalem.
I acknowledged, of course, that they "may have been 'very religious.'" What I questioned was calling them "very orthodox." Although we cannot assume that they agreed fully with the content of every document found amongst the Scrolls, their literary remains appear suggestive of some idiosyncratic character.
You know how to make me happyHeck, lets just say you are 100% correct on your statements.

I have already posted that 'I do not use any bible as "God-breathed, 100% truth.'" Textual evidence from the Dead Sea Scrolls and the Septuagint and even the Ge'ez bible is quite welcome, though each must be handled sensitively - like all textual evidence, including the manuscripts that yield the Masoretic Text.The problem is what you (others?) have ignored is that if your above points are a valid reason [shady Jewish history ?] not equate their Jewish OT texts as sacred, then place those same standards on your Hebrew Texts (that you expound as 100% truth God Breathed).
But referencing the Dead Sea Scrolls is not altogether helpful to your argument. The mere presence of a document amongst these literary remains does not demonstrate that the people responsible for the Scrolls considered the document to be canonical, and one cannot claim based upon the Dead Sea manuscripts that their text-type is sheerly Septuagintal (q.v., The Dead Sea Scrolls Bible, linked here).
(aleph) I don't accept the canonical tradition of either mainstream Judaism or the sundry Christianities. (beth) I don't recall commenting on prayer for the dead. (gymel) As for the tongues of Pharisees, I'll gleefully accept those on a case-by-case basis.I have pressed the issue forward over and over about the numerous contradictions in historical judgement of the Hebrew Jews codified OT scripture (completely non-Christian) .... I have demonstrated the very obvious discrepancies in the Protestant OT with hybridized uses of Hebrew and Greek texts simply to support a Protestant stance ...... I bring up Jewish traditions (ie, prayers for the dead), and you question their validity.... yet in the same breath you will gleefully accept the tongue of a Pharisee when Scripture directly warns you to avoid.
Why should I be concerned about proving Protestant positions? For the third time, "I am neither Protestant nor biblicist."You are getting into a very interesting area that forces you to extract historical documents as proof of Protestant positions.
I have heard of these men, but I don't have Tiger Beat posters of either hanging on my wall.I would love to see what you find about Flavius Josephus and Martin Luther.
The Hebrew text does not make any claim about Mary's sexual experience, one way or the other. Both Protestants and Catholics are welcome to recognize that.Why don't Protestants stand with their Hebrew Jewish brother's Hebrew text as God Breathed truth and accept the Hebrew concept that Mary was not a Virgin when she gave birth to Immanuel "God is with us"?
Then again, Protestants and Catholics are welcome to consider that the Greek parthenos might not always imply its subject's virginity (q.v., conveniently linked: Pindar's Pythian Odes 3.34; Sophocles' Trachiniae 1219; Genesis 34:3 in the LXX). Perhaps there is no necessary conflict between the LXX and the Masoretic 'almah.
(aleph) You can rely upon a council of Christians who treated a man as if he were God, and I can moan and groan that consonance with Christian theology is irrelevant to matters of textual criticism.You can moan and groan why I use a Greek OT text in my Catholic Christian Bible, but at least I can rely on a council of Christians who loved and adored Jesus Christ as their Savior asking the Holy Spirit to guide them, rather than a council of pharisaical Jews that hated Jesus Christ.
(beth) Jerome used Hebrew for the Vulgate; the Douay translated the Vulgate, while conferring with Hebrew; the New Jerusalem Bible, the New American Bible, and the Christian Community Bible all used Hebrew. So far as I am aware, the Catholic Church is neither dead-set against the Hebrew text, nor especially infatuated with the Greek text.
Shlamaa,
Emmet