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by _Paidion » Wed Jun 20, 2007 11:00 pm
Okay, TK. That's a pretty good example of someone who exercises his will "unfreely".
So by analogy, a person who is a slave to sin, might choose to obey it, but inwardly he is seething, wishing to obey God. Would that be the case?
It seems to be consistent with what Paul said in Romans 7. Without Christ, "I of myself serve the law of God with my mind, but with my flesh I serve the law of sin." Also:
For I know that nothing good dwells within me, that is, in my flesh. I can will what is right, but I cannot do it. For I do not do the good I want, but the evil I do not want is what I do.
It certainly seems to be the case that generally, one does not work righteousness without the enabling grace of Christ. That seems to be the sense that he is "a slave to sin" as our Lord taught. Yet particularly, that is, on some particular occasion, he does seem to have the ability to do it.
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Paidion
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"Not one soul will ever be redeemed from hell but by being saved from his sins, from the evil in him." --- George MacDonald