Either my intellectual powers are fading, or your sentences are becoming more and more unintellible the further you get into this discussion. I honestly am having a real hard time following your thoughts.
There is no ostensibly on my part, as you must know that I am trying to get you to cough up any verse that describes postmortem hell 'because' many have Old Testament roots. It has been really hard to determine how much your full or partial Preterism plays into ‘your’ argument for UR.
I don't know how preterism plays into my argument either. Maybe in that some of the verses I see as applicable to AD 70 are ones that you apply to hell? I doubt that my preterism has affected my view of final destinies, since AD 70 did not mark the final judgment or the assignment of people to final destinies. Which of the New Testament passages about "hell" have Old Testament roots? We can look at them case-by-case, if you wish.
I will pretend to know nothing of UR and ask you then; does UR accept any or most OT verses describing destruction, cutting up, burning, ruin and blotting out as only describing temporal events pre-NT times or do they accept these as descriptions of post Judgment punishments?
If any Old Testament passage is to be used as a reference to post-mortem judgment (or to anything more than what it seems to describe), I am willing to see the exegesis by which this claim is sustained.
I was wondering how ‘you’ determine Jesus is talking post mortem (or post AD70) on a verse such as these that contain something such as weeping and gnashing of teeth,
The verses about weeping and gnashing of teeth are in contexts which, on other grounds, strike me as eschatological. Therefore, they seem to me to be referring to the results of the final judgment.
when Jesus uses this same phrase in conjuncture with parables concerning the tares and being thrown into fire, which previously I heard you determine that the fire was temporal (Gehenna)
Where are you finding a reference to Gehenna in the parable of the wheat and the tares? I see the "fire" there as eschatological, but I don't find any reference in the story to "Gehenna."
or AD70 when you used Preterism to support your argument for UR, for which you show no sign of ‘tentative’ thinking.
I am not getting your thought here. When did I use preterism to defend UR? And what was it in my doing so that gave no sign of tentativeness in my thinking about hell?
Please take more time in framing your comments, so that I can make sense of them (if you are desiring a response from me).