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Jesus Refers Positively to a Passage of David's Sin?
Posted: Tue Jul 05, 2016 2:31 pm
by remade
I am studying I Samuel on my own, and I'm coming across the familiar passage of David and the showbread (I Samuel 21). In the NT, Jesus obviously refers to this account as lawful description of David receiving food meant for the priests (Matt 12:1-8; Mark 2:23-28).
I was wondering though... I know I and II Samuel is written in such a way to be silent as to correcting immorality or reproving it. However, besides the implications for David's taking of showbread, we see here that David lies about his intentions as to even why he's in Nob to begin with (I Samuel 21:2 - 'the king has commissioned me'); and his lies leads to the massacre of the priests at Nob (I Samuel 22:17-18). This is not unlike David's sinning with Bathsheba, lying about it, and losing Uriah and his illegitimate child after words.
In light of all this, it is interesting to me (merely interesting, I obviously do not take offense, or disregard Jesus's words) that Jesus points to David's occasion at this House for the fact that God met David's humane needs at the expense of ignoring His pre-ordained law, and THAT truth is in such a story filled with such blatant sin. (David's lying, his actions bringing more destruction upon God's house from Saul's pursuit, etc.).
Any thoughts to all this?
Re: Jesus Refers Positively to a Passage of David's Sin?
Posted: Tue Jul 05, 2016 3:16 pm
by steve
The Bible also favorably mentions (twice—Heb.11:31; James 2:25) the righteous act of Rahab sparing the Israelite spies. Neither passage commend her for her prostitution, nor for her lying. The fact that she took sides with God's people is what makes her worthy of commendation. There were other things in her life that are not commended.
Jesus does not say that David was righteous in his lying to the priests, but He indicates that the violation of the showbread law by David was (strangely) a matter that did not disturb those who were complaining about His disciples picking and rubbing grain in the their hands on the Sabbath. Jesus is pointing out the inconsistency of the critics in condemning the latter act, since David's action was as much a violation of ceremonial law as was the disciples' obtaining food for themselves in this controversial manner on the Sabbath.
Technically, Jesus was not saying that David did a good thing or a bad thing (though He seemed to justify it). He was only pointing out the inconsistency of the Jewish leaders on that occasion.
Re: Jesus Refers Positively to a Passage of David's Sin?
Posted: Tue Jul 05, 2016 3:53 pm
by remade
Steve said:
The fact that [Rahab] took sides with God's people is what makes her worthy of commendation. There were other things in her life that are not commended.
Interesting observation. Sometimes we Christians become Pharisaical and instruct those around us to run through proverbial maze like rats in order to receive the cheese (God's gift), whereas the story to Samuel in picking out David, is that God looks at the inward motives of the heart. I'm not saying that "Deep down David is a good guy," but it would seem that David's ultimate desire is to be worthy of God's grace, as shown to us by the Psalms. But like Paul well described years later, perhaps David (and Bathsheba, and many of us) struggle along with Paul in the
Romans 7 life.
I don't say all this, nor do I think you said this to excuse sin, but instead to realize that Jesus commends David, and the author of Hebrews as well as James commends Rabab - and these are all real people who sin at times but show some sort of fruit in wanting to be on the side of God's people no matter the cost. In their own broken, sinful ways, they showed true repentance.
Re: Jesus Refers Positively to a Passage of David's Sin?
Posted: Tue Jul 05, 2016 4:43 pm
by Paidion
What I am about to say is a little off topic, but I just want to comment the following statement:
But like Paul well described years later, perhaps David (and Bathsheba, and many of us) struggle along with Paul in the Romans 7 life.
I think it is fairly obvious that Paul, in Romans 7, is not talking about his personal struggles with wrongdoing at all. Rather he is speaking of the "hypothetical I," the person who does not draw upon the enabling grace of God to overcome. He is saying that such a person may know in his heart what is right, but lacks in himself the ability to do it.
Verses 18,19 For I know that nothing good dwells in me, that is, in my flesh. For I have the desire to do what is right, but not the ability to carry it out. For I do not do the good I want, but the evil I do not want is what I keep on doing.
But Paul, still on the same subject, makes clear (in the first verses of chapter 8) that, through Christ, we can be set free from those inabilities within in us, and can carry out God's requirements after all!
There is therefore now no condemnation for those who are in Christ Jesus. For the law of the Spirit of life has set you free in Christ Jesus from the law of sin and death. For God has done what the law, weakened by the flesh, could not do. By sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh and for sin, he condemned sin in the flesh, in order that the righteous requirement of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not according to the flesh but according to the Spirit. (Romans 8:1-4)
Re: Jesus Refers Positively to a Passage of David's Sin?
Posted: Thu Jul 07, 2016 12:13 pm
by remade
Paidon -
I know that Paul preaches a sanctified life, capable of sinlessness.
This doesn't mean in my own life that I cannot really identify with Romans 7 at times, because I can. It means that I need to press on, and work out my faith in fear and trembling, striving to live the Romans 8 life.