Hi Christopher,
Thanks for your reply.
I don't pretend to understand the nature of God and the relationship of the trinity, but preeminence doesn't seem to suggest subordinance to me.
Nor does preeminence suggest co-equality, so unless you are willing to say that Jesus Christ, the Son of God, is preeminent over God the Father, I would not use Col. 1 to refute my assertion that he is voluntarily subordinate to God the Father. In Col. 1 15-18, Paul is establishing Jesus' preeminence over creation. I don't believe he is speaking to Jesus' relative position with respect to his Father.
If it's as easy as all that, then what do you make of Jesus' response to Phillip?:
John 14:8-11
8 Philip said to Him, "Lord, show us the Father, and it is sufficient for us." 9 Jesus said to him, "Have I been with you so long, and yet you have not known Me, Philip? He who has seen Me has seen the Father; so how can you say, 'Show us the Father'? 10 Do you not believe that I am in the Father, and the Father in Me? The words that I speak to you I do not speak on My own authority; but the Father who dwells in Me does the works. 11 Believe Me that I am in the Father and the Father in Me, or else believe Me for the sake of the works themselves.
NKJV
Elsewhere, He says:
John 10:30
I and My Father are one."
NKJV
Seems to me Jesus himself is blurring the lines a little, wouldn't you say? Otherwise, Philips' request wouldn't be that unreasonable I think.
I do not believe that Jesus is blurring the lines at all. In John Chapter 1, John says, "And the word became flesh and dwelt among us, full of grace and truth; we have beheld his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father.... No one has ever seen God; the only Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, he has made him known."
That is precisely how Jesus could say, "He who has seen me has seen the Father" and "I and my Father are one." John explicitly says that
no one has seen God, but that Jesus has made him known.
In John Chapter 10, read the whole context. If Jesus wanted to really "blur the lines" why did he not say in verse 36
I am God instead of "I am the Son of God"?
Finally, read John chapter 17. This chapter gives clarity to the meaning of Jesus' oneness with his Father. Praying for the Church, Jesus says,"that they may all be one; even as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be in us, so that the world may believe that thou hast sent me." When Jesus was praying that we, the Church, would be one in the same way that he and his Father are one, and "that they also may be in us," What exactly was he asking for? If Jesus' oneness with his Father means that Jesus = God, then the Church's oneness with Jesus and his Father must mean that the Church = God. This is certainly not the case. Oneness does not mean equality; it means unity of spirit and purpose.