Question about Biblical Literalism

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jds22
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Question about Biblical Literalism

Post by jds22 » Tue Dec 29, 2009 10:43 am

I was listening to a podcast the other day but I can't remember which one. It might have been the debate between Steve Gregg and Tom Bertoli. Anyways somebody said, and I'm paraphrasing here, that biblical literalism is primarily a 20th century US invention.

My questions are, is that true and if so where can I read more about it?

Thanks,
Jerry

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steve
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Re: Question about Biblical Literalism

Post by steve » Tue Dec 29, 2009 4:46 pm

If that comment was made in a debate between Tommy and myself, it would have been I who made it. Tommy would not. However, I don't think I would say just that either. I would be more inclined to say that Dispensationalism—with its emphasis on its unique kind of "literalism"—was a product of the nineteeth century.

I might have said that this kind of literalism has characterized, primarily, the 20th-century American brand of evangelicalism.

jds22
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Joined: Mon Jul 20, 2009 8:44 am

Re: Question about Biblical Literalism

Post by jds22 » Tue Dec 29, 2009 4:51 pm

steve wrote:If that comment was made in a debate between Tommy and myself, it would have been I who made it. Tommy would not. However, I don't think I would say just that either. I would be more inclined to say that Dispensationalism—with its emphasis on its unique kind of "literalism"—was a product of the nineteeth century.

I might have said that this kind of literalism has characterized, primarily, the 20th-century American brand of evangelicalism.
Ah, I do believe that was it.

Thanks and btw, that was a great debate.

Jerry

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