Daniel's Last 3 1/2 in 9:27

[Guest]

Hi Steve,

Again, we've just finished your Daniel series..

I've also listened to your 'what to make of Israel' series

and I"ve got a question about he last 3 1/2 years of the last 7 years...

if the last 3 1/2 refers to Paul's conversion and the beginning of God dealing with the Gentiles, primarily, how do you account for the destruction of the temple in 70 AD as seemingly falling within the total 490 years as prophesied by Daniel?

I think all of us up here had a big 'hunh' about how this? Any insights?

Thanks again!

Les

[Guest]

Hi Les,
The identification of the second half of Daniel's seventieth "week" (a word that actually is referring to a period of seven years, not days) presents certain difficulties. Not so with the first half. At the end of the sixty-ninth "week," the Messiah comes (Dan.9:25) and is cut off "in the midst of the [seventieth] week" [that is, after 3 1/2 years of ministry], bringing the end of the Jewish system of "sacrifice and offering" (vv.26-27). Thus far, we need have no confusion (unless we have been made unnecessarily confused by the strange teaching that there is a 2000-year gap between the 69th and the 70th weeks, and that "he" who ends the sacrificial system is not Christ but some "antichrist" who has never previously been introduced). So, if Christ is crucified in the middle of the seventieth week, what becomes of the second half of that "week" (3 1/2/ years)?

One possibility (as you mentioned my saying) is that this is the period from the time of the crucifixion to the time that Gentiles began to be evangelized. The 70 weeks have to do with God's special dealing with Daniel's people (the Jews) and their holy city (Jerusalem), according to 9:24. God reached out exclusively to the Jews for a few years after Pentecost, until He commissioned Paul to be an apostle to the Gentiles. This may have been (though we can't be sure) about 3 or 4 years after the crucifixion. But this suggestion does not explain why the fall of Jerusalem (included in the prophecy, and perhaps, by implication, also within the 70 weeks) did not occur within that period. One answer might be that the fall of Jerusalem is not actually said to happen within the seventy weeks. It may be mentioned in vv.26 and 27 as a later consequence of events that transpired within that time period.

Another possibility would place the fall of Jerusalem within the seventy weeks, by identifying the last 3 1/2 years with the Jewish War (66-70 AD), which culminated in the fall of Jerusalem to the Romans (predicted in Dan.9:26-27). The problem with this suggestion is the necessity of postulating a gap of about 36 years between the first half of the week (ending at the crucifixion) and the second half of the same week (beginning with the Roman invasion). Such a gap is not inconceivable, but it is not mentioned. On the other hand, when God promised the Israelites that he would deliver them from Egypt and give them the promised land, He didn't mention that there would be about 40 years between those two events. As there was a transitional generation after the exodus and before the new nation was established, there also seems to have been a transitional generation following the crucifixion, before that same nation was swept away.

If I gave the impression in my lectures that I know the answer to this puzzle, I misled you, and I would be surprised if I did so. Each of the above options has its minor problems, but I do not consider that either possibility is fatally flawed, as is the dispensational system that interjects an antichrist out of nowhere as a main player, and transforms a period of 490 years into a period five times that length.

[Guest]

I just finished listening to your study on Daniel 9:20-27 as well. And I think I need a little bit of help grasping all that you said.

1. Why is their a breakdown of [seven seven's] and [sixty-two seven's] in verse 25? Did something significant happen after 49 years? What am I missing?

2. I'm still confused by the end of 27, 'And on the wing of the temple he will set up an abomination that causes desolation, until the end that is decreed is poured out on him.' Is the 'he' referring to 'the 'ruler' in verse 26? I know you said you take 26 and 27 to be parelel. 26 starts with the annointed one and ends with a ruler. Does 27 do the same? And if so, what exactly was the abomination that causes desolation in 70AD?

Any further clarification would be greatly appreciated!

[RND]

I just finished listening to your study on Daniel 9:20-27 as well. And I think I need a little bit of help grasping all that you said.

1. Why is their a breakdown of [seven seven's] and [sixty-two seven's] in verse 25? Did something significant happen after 49 years? What am I missing?

The Temple re-build was completed by those exiled from Babylonian captivity. See the book of Ezra.

2. I'm still confused by the end of 27, 'And on the wing of the temple he will set up an abomination that causes desolation, until the end that is decreed is poured out on him.' Is the 'he' referring to 'the 'ruler' in verse 26?

No, the Messiah. "...And he (Messiah) shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease..."

When Jesus was "cut-off" in the midst of the week the sacrifices of bulls, goats, lambs, rams, etc., were rendered useless.

Hbr 10:26 For if we sin wilfully after that we have received the knowledge of the truth, there remaineth no more sacrifice for sins,

I know you said you take 26 and 27 to be parelel. 26 starts with the annointed one and ends with a ruler. Does 27 do the same?

No, Verse 27 is strictly about the works of Messiah.

And if so, what exactly was the abomination that causes desolation in 70AD?

The spirit of anti-christ.

Any further clarification would be greatly appreciated!

No expert but I hope that helps.