The Narrow Path Ministries

I have been reading an article by A.W. Pink called "God's sovereignty defined" for a class. I am having trouble with Pink's arguments. He uses a lot of straw men, neglected middles etc. in making his points wrt God's sovereignty. He uses this verse from psalms as follows:

"To say that the creature has burst the bounds assigned by his Creator, and that God is now practically a helpless Spectator before the sin and suffering entailed by Adam's fall, is to repudiate the express declaration of Holy Writ, namely "Surely the wrath of man shall praise Thee: the remainder of wrath shalt Thou restrain" (Ps 76:10)."

As I read through this psalm, it appears to be praising God for His support of Israel/Jacob in battle and how His name becomes known among Israel's enemies. Verse 10 seems somewhat obscure. I am not sure, however, that it really makes the point Pink asserts it does, i.e. that God sovereignly decrees the evil deeds of men as part of His hidden plan.

I am curious how others might see this verse (and psalm).

Thanks in advance for your comments.

Jess

Psa 76:10 NET Bible "Certainly your angry judgment upon men will bring you praise; you reveal your anger in full measure."

I do not see this as supporting Pink's idea that God sovereignly decrees the evil deeds of men as part of His hidden plan. I see Psa 76:10 supporting the idea that God's justice upon evil is a good thing and when justice is done, it pleases Him. The last part of the verse could be refering to the fact that full and final justice will not be done until the very end (the final resurrection).

Just my thoughts
Doug

Thanks, Doug.

Neither the KJV (in my post above) and the NASB (what I usually read) were very clear IMO.

NASB: "For the wrath of man shall praise Thee; With a remnant of wrath Thou shalt gird Thyself."

Yours puts an entirely different spin on the verse.

Jess