Dizerner wrote:
I don't see anything halfway about "depart from me."
Much more halfway than annihilation or reconciliation. "Depart from me" (according to the traditional view) means, "Keep on rebelling eternally, but don't do it around me!"
I could argue with you that infinite hatred cannot be expressed in a limited time, otherwise it's definitely halfway
Two thoughts:
First, where does the Bible speak of infinite hatred? We might reasonably speak of infinite love, since God is infinite and "God is love." Yet we never read that "God is hatred" or "God is wrath." As with any loving parent, these are passing emotions with God—His love is forever.
The Lord is merciful and gracious,
slow to anger and abounding in steadfast love.
He will not always chide,
nor will he keep his anger forever. (Ps. 103:8-9 ESV)
For I will not contend forever,
Nor will I always be angry;
For the spirit would fail before Me,
And the souls which I have made. (Isa. 57:16)
For the Lord will not cast off forever.
Though He causes grief,
Yet He will show compassion
According to the multitude of His mercies.
For He does not afflict willingly,
Nor grieve the children of men. (Lam. 3:31-33)
So what, exactly, is your scriptural basis for talking about "infinite hatred"?
Second, the doctrine of eternal torment does not reveal hatred toward sin, but toward the sinner. Sin remains in full vigor, unimpeded, in the traditional hell. It maintains its dominion over its slaves in hell, inspiring eternal hatred in them toward God.
How is sin, in this case, punished? It is the slave (not the tyrannical master) who is punished in hell. Does God have eternal hatred toward sinners who were created by Him for fellowship with Him, but who were infected by the disease of sin? Why hate them? Why not deal with the disease itself? Is sin the only disease that God is unable to cure, and whose grip upon His creatures He must tolerate forever?
Homer asked:
If the purpose of hell is the elimination of sin, what scripture(s) explicitly state this?
I believe the purpose of the final judgment and the restitution of all things is to restore the sinless condition that existed originally. To express the unacceptability of a thing, all Jesus had to say was, "It was not so from the beginning" (i.e., God didn't originally make things that way). I believe that God made things as He wanted them, before man's rebellion. In the new creation, there will be "no more curse" (Rev.22:3). One may freely argue against this proposition, if one wishes, and say that God intends to allow sin to continue undefeated eternally, but I would be interested in seeing the scriptural case for anything so counterintuitive.
Can sin ever be eliminated entirely as long as creatures have free will?
Yes. Jesus had free will, and He never sinned. This is an option, and I believe it describes the eternal state of the redeemed.
Why would God need hell to eliminate sin? He could just let us all die and leave us dead.
He wouldn't need hell in order to
annihilate sin, if that is the only imaginable way of
eliminating it. On the other hand, some kind of hell might be necessary if His preferred method for eliminating sin the post-mortem reformation of sinners. That clearly is His preferred method in this present life. Unless He has a change of plans, or thinks something else would work better, He might continue pursuing the same goals beyond the grave, for all we know.