The Day of Judgment for the Christian
Posted: Thu Apr 22, 2010 6:40 am
[I moved this question from the "General Questions" section, because it kind of morphed into a topic on Hell.]
I read this passage yesterday and I saw something I never thought of before, although it may be completely incorrect considering the rest of Scripture on the subject. I should begin by saying I am still contemplating the "three views" of Hell, and I'm still undecided. However, my question is prefaced with the assumption that the conditional immortality view or the universal reconciliation view is correct (this is because my conclusions are impossible in the eternal torment view).
"For we must all appear before the judgment seat of Christ, that each one may receive the things done in the body, according to what he has done, whether good or bad." (2 Corinthians 5:10, NKJV, emphasis mine)
Here Paul says that "all" must appear before the judgment seat of Christ. It seems clear that 2 Cor. 5:1-8 (the preceding verses regarding the resurrection of believers) is referring to Christians alone. However, verse 11 says: "Knowing, therefore, the terror of the Lord, we persuade men..."(2 Cor. 5:11a). This seems to be speaking of non-believers since Paul mentions the need to "persuade" men... Now, is Paul referring to unbelievers in verse 11? Or could the "men" being persuaded just refer to Christians who need to 'make it their aim to be pleasing to God' in their life (5:9)?
Paul says here that all will stand before Christ one day, and that each one will receive rewards for the things they've done, whether good or bad. Is Paul making a distinction here? Is he saying "there will be some who receive rewards only for the good they've done (believers) and others (the lost) will receive the rewards only for the bad they've done"? Or is it possible he is saying that every individual will receive both the rewards for the good and bad he has done, respectively? I question the latter interpretation only because it seems bizarre that a Christian would have to suffer a penalty for his own sins (or that there would be some kind of reward for sin other than the due punishment for it), considering that Christ suffered in his or her place. However, when I just read the verse naturally, it seems easiest to understand that there will be rewards for every person on the basis of what they've done, irregardless if they are a Christian or not, and that those rewards will be based on both their good and bad works. If this is true, what does this mean for the Christian? I thought I didn't believe in a purgatory! It doesn't make sense to me. I have heard some teachers (Chuck Missler - http://www.khouse.org/articles/2010/895/) teach that there is a place of purging for the Christian in "outer darkness" (He believes the outer darkness doesn't refer to Hell but rather refers to a place of restorative chastening where weak believers will be re-taught in the things of God and will be further sanctified before entering Heaven), although I have trouble understanding that view. Is there any biblical basis for this? Does this begin to tread into the ballpark of Universalism? I know that Universalists often use 2 Cor. 5:19, which is in this context. But I've always thought that the restorative purging of Hell is only for the unbelievers in the Universalist framework. Are there Universalists who believe that this "restorative purging" will also be the lot of some or all Christians?
The most uncomfortable thing about the more "natural" interpretation I came across is that it seems to indicate a works-based salvation: "If you do more good then bad, you'll still suffer for your bad, but at least it won't be as long.", or vice versa (in the Universalist view). It also seems bizarre that Christians would have to be purged for their own sins in eternity, since Christ has purged them (unless there is no longer any sacrifice for willful transgression after salvation [Heb. 10:26], although I tend to apply that to unbelievers due to the context). I tend to think that Paul was making a distinction that only believers will be rewarded for their good works, and unbelievers will be rewarded for their bad works.
Any thoughts specifically about 2 Cor. 5:10 and the other things I brought up?
If anyone's work is burned, he will suffer loss; but he himself will be saved, yet so as through fire. 1 Cor. 3:15
What is the suffering loss? A missed opportunity for a reward? Or something else?
What is the fire?
I read this passage yesterday and I saw something I never thought of before, although it may be completely incorrect considering the rest of Scripture on the subject. I should begin by saying I am still contemplating the "three views" of Hell, and I'm still undecided. However, my question is prefaced with the assumption that the conditional immortality view or the universal reconciliation view is correct (this is because my conclusions are impossible in the eternal torment view).
"For we must all appear before the judgment seat of Christ, that each one may receive the things done in the body, according to what he has done, whether good or bad." (2 Corinthians 5:10, NKJV, emphasis mine)
Here Paul says that "all" must appear before the judgment seat of Christ. It seems clear that 2 Cor. 5:1-8 (the preceding verses regarding the resurrection of believers) is referring to Christians alone. However, verse 11 says: "Knowing, therefore, the terror of the Lord, we persuade men..."(2 Cor. 5:11a). This seems to be speaking of non-believers since Paul mentions the need to "persuade" men... Now, is Paul referring to unbelievers in verse 11? Or could the "men" being persuaded just refer to Christians who need to 'make it their aim to be pleasing to God' in their life (5:9)?
Paul says here that all will stand before Christ one day, and that each one will receive rewards for the things they've done, whether good or bad. Is Paul making a distinction here? Is he saying "there will be some who receive rewards only for the good they've done (believers) and others (the lost) will receive the rewards only for the bad they've done"? Or is it possible he is saying that every individual will receive both the rewards for the good and bad he has done, respectively? I question the latter interpretation only because it seems bizarre that a Christian would have to suffer a penalty for his own sins (or that there would be some kind of reward for sin other than the due punishment for it), considering that Christ suffered in his or her place. However, when I just read the verse naturally, it seems easiest to understand that there will be rewards for every person on the basis of what they've done, irregardless if they are a Christian or not, and that those rewards will be based on both their good and bad works. If this is true, what does this mean for the Christian? I thought I didn't believe in a purgatory! It doesn't make sense to me. I have heard some teachers (Chuck Missler - http://www.khouse.org/articles/2010/895/) teach that there is a place of purging for the Christian in "outer darkness" (He believes the outer darkness doesn't refer to Hell but rather refers to a place of restorative chastening where weak believers will be re-taught in the things of God and will be further sanctified before entering Heaven), although I have trouble understanding that view. Is there any biblical basis for this? Does this begin to tread into the ballpark of Universalism? I know that Universalists often use 2 Cor. 5:19, which is in this context. But I've always thought that the restorative purging of Hell is only for the unbelievers in the Universalist framework. Are there Universalists who believe that this "restorative purging" will also be the lot of some or all Christians?
The most uncomfortable thing about the more "natural" interpretation I came across is that it seems to indicate a works-based salvation: "If you do more good then bad, you'll still suffer for your bad, but at least it won't be as long.", or vice versa (in the Universalist view). It also seems bizarre that Christians would have to be purged for their own sins in eternity, since Christ has purged them (unless there is no longer any sacrifice for willful transgression after salvation [Heb. 10:26], although I tend to apply that to unbelievers due to the context). I tend to think that Paul was making a distinction that only believers will be rewarded for their good works, and unbelievers will be rewarded for their bad works.
Any thoughts specifically about 2 Cor. 5:10 and the other things I brought up?
If anyone's work is burned, he will suffer loss; but he himself will be saved, yet so as through fire. 1 Cor. 3:15
What is the suffering loss? A missed opportunity for a reward? Or something else?
What is the fire?