The Forceful Kingdom. Support for the reconciliation of all?

User avatar
_Paidion
Posts: 944
Joined: Mon Jul 25, 2005 7:42 pm
Location: Chapple, Ontario

Post by _Paidion » Thu Feb 21, 2008 11:16 am

Homer, the basic meaning of "logos" is "an expression". If a brother gives "a word" at a Christian assembly, he expresses himself. The logos of God is the expression of God. Jesus being the Son of God, the very image of the Father, expresses the Father fully as no other can do.

The historic Christian church has always understood the logos of God in John 1 to refer to this chief expression of himself, that is, his Son.

It is true that the word "logos" can mean "reason". From this we get the English word "logical".

But why do you speak of God without Christ? There was never a time that God was without Christ. God was not temporally prior to Christ. Yet there was a beginning of time when the Son was begotten. There were no events before that moment, as there was no "before".

I know this is difficult to comprehend, but for me it is far easier to understand than believing either that time extends infinitely into the past, or that there is some mysterious non-temporal entity called "eternity past".
Last edited by Guest on Wed Dec 31, 1969 7:00 pm, edited 0 times in total.
Reason:
Paidion
Avatar --- Age 45
"Not one soul will ever be redeemed from hell but by being saved from his sins, from the evil in him." --- George MacDonald

User avatar
_Homer
Posts: 639
Joined: Fri Jan 07, 2005 11:43 pm
Location: Brownsville

Post by _Homer » Sun Feb 24, 2008 12:27 am

Paidion,

You wrote:


But why do you speak of God without Christ? There was never a time that God was without Christ. God was not temporally prior to Christ. Yet there was a beginning of time when the Son was begotten. There were no events before that moment, as there was no "before".


I am unsure what difference you find in your claim Jesus was "begotten" as opposed to created. If there was no "before", did God exist "before"? And if He did, was He "expressionless"? And what of the long periods when God apparently was "silent", i.e., nothing revealed to prophets, etc., as far as we know. During those periods when God was "expressionless", did Jesus exist? It seems to me the main point of the use of logos as descriptive of Jesus prior to His incarnation was to show that God and Jesus are coeval.

And you wrote:

I know this is difficult to comprehend, but for me it is far easier to understand than believing either that time extends infinitely into the past, or that there is some mysterious non-temporal entity called "eternity past".
Why is this any more difficult to comprehend than an "eternity future"?
Last edited by Guest on Wed Dec 31, 1969 7:00 pm, edited 0 times in total.
Reason:
A Berean

User avatar
_Paidion
Posts: 944
Joined: Mon Jul 25, 2005 7:42 pm
Location: Chapple, Ontario

Post by _Paidion » Sun Feb 24, 2008 12:45 am

If there was no "before", did God exist "before"?
The question is meaningless. If there was no "before" then we cannot meaningfully speak of "before".
Last edited by Guest on Wed Dec 31, 1969 7:00 pm, edited 0 times in total.
Reason:
Paidion
Avatar --- Age 45
"Not one soul will ever be redeemed from hell but by being saved from his sins, from the evil in him." --- George MacDonald

Post Reply

Return to “Views of Hell”