About a book. The Death of Death in the Death of Christ written by John Owen, introduction by J.I.Packer had quotes from Christians in ancient times who wrote about Christ's death and what it was for, very similar to the Calvinist today.
I have the book and have read Packer's introduction (because someone told me that his introduction alone was worth the price of the book). When I tried to read Owen himself, he put my feet to sleep up to the hips. It has been over ten years since I read Packer's intro, and just pulled it off my shelf again to see the quotes from the fathers which he used. Scanning through, I could not quickly spot them. If you would tell me the page numbers where they are cited, I will look at them again.
Now with regard to Romans 3 your saying "none seek after God" doesn't mean that no one does and there is examples of those who do and that this is a hyperbole in the Psalms. Alright, I'll accept what your saying, so there are only some who don't seek after God. But what about there's none righteous? If I follow this understanding I need to be consistent and also say there are some righteous, there are some who understand, there are some who do good, are useful, who have tongues who don't deceive, no cursing in their mouths, they fear God before their eyes.
Yes, my comments apply to these phrases as well. Let's look at the individual statements in Paul's collage of Old Testament texts, and see whether they are universal statements or not:
"There is none righteous..."
Throughout the scripture, there are always some who are regarded as "righteous" (e.g., Job 1:1/ Luke 1:6). In the Psalms and Proverbs alone, there are nearly 90 references to "the righteous";
"there is none who understands..."
Except for the ones who do "understand" (Prov.28:5/Ps.107:43/Dan.12:10);
"there is none...who seeks after God"
Yet, the author himself was such a seeker, as are others who were known, in his day, to "seek the Lord" (e.g. Psalm 34:10; 105:3/ Pr.28:5) ;
"With their tongues they have practiced deceit"
But then there are those guileless ones, who "do not lie" (Prov.14:5/John 1:47/Rev.14:5).
"their feet are swift to shed blood"
Would you consider this to be descriptive of all of your unsaved friends? Have you called the police?
"there is no fear of God before their eyes"
But the writer certainly knew of many who "feared the Lord" (Psalm 15:4; 22:23; 34:9; 115:11,13; 135:20) and the fear of the Lord is a phenomenon spoken of scores of times in scripture.
I would point out that, of all the references I have just provided (and there are many more that can easily be mined with a concordance), only one or two could possibly be describing "regenerated" people (Daniel 12:10 and Revelation14:5). In other words, these are not terms distinguishing "regenerate" from "unregenerate" folks. It is simply describing people's choices.
By the way, when people are actually described as "seeking the Lord", the scripture does not say that this happened because of the sovereign working of God in their hearts, but it says that they themselves "prepared" or "set" their hearts to seek the Lord (e.g., 1 Chron.22:19/2 Chron.11:16; 12:14; 19:3; 20:3/ Ezra 7:10). Paul said that God has distributed the nations in such a way as to encourage them to seek the Lord (Acts 17:27).
David's and Isaiah's words (quoted by Paul, in Romans 3) are obviously hyperbole.
If the above is true about what your saying, then verse 3:19 should also be understood in a limited way for that is the train of thought. Do you think not all are under Law? But only some? ...I understand that it does speak to all humanity being under Law and accountable to God.
Only the Jews are regarded, in scripture, as being "under the law" (1 Cor.9:20-21). That was the glory of the Jews. God had never given such laws to any other nation (Deut.4:5-8).
Even if the Gentiles could, in some extended sense be said to be "under" or "answerable to" God's laws (which is questionable—Rom.2:14), the context of Romans 3 is specifically about the Jews and the law, as is easily seen by following Paul's argument from the beginning of the chapter, and even earlier..
There is also verse 23 all have sinned.
Yes, but Paul's whole statement is, "For
there is no difference; for all have sinned..." No difference between what? Between Jews and Gentiles. This is the capstone of his argument from the beginning of the chapter. The Jews thought they were different from (better than) the Gentiles, because of their having the law (2:17-20; 3:1-2). Paul says that it is not the possession of the law, but the keeping of the law that makes a better man (2:13), and that the Jews have not exceeded the Gentiles in that department (3:9). To make his point airtight, Paul quotes a litany of complaints about wicked Jews from the writings of David and Isaiah (3:10-18). These passages are confirming that Jews (to whom and of whom the passages are speaking—v.19) can be about as wicked as they usually considered the Gentiles to be, and are, in any case, "no better" (v.9).
So what does Paul conclude? "There is no difference" (v.22) between Jews and Gentiles upon racial or privilege grounds, but "all (Jews and Gentiles) have sinned (about equally) and come short of the glory of God" (v.23).
Of course all humans have sinned. All theological camps agree on this. However, if we think that Paul is here trying to make a case against every individual (namely, that no one has ever understood, or sought God, or been obedient to Him), then we will miss Paul's whole meaning, and will set him at odds with hundreds of scriptures that speak about people who do indeed seek God and understand and obey Him.
Paul was not a Calvinist trying to declare total depravity here. Romans is very far from being a Calvinistic document (e.g., 2:11; 10:6-13; 11:22). In Romans 3, Paul was one Jew seeking to convince his fellow Jews that they did not have any grounds for thinking themselves superior as a race to the Gentiles, simply because of their having God's oracles given to them.