The Narrow Path Ministries

It would be most helpful, it seems to me, if it can be determined what the biblical meaning of "grace" is. Websters defines it (1) as "unmerited devine assistance given man for his regeneration or sanctification", and (2) "a state of sanctification enjoyed through divine grace", and (3) "a virtue coming from God".

Note: I understand "merit" to mean "deserve".

These questions readily come to mind (You may think of others).

1. Are any or all these definitions biblically correct?

2. When does an act or attribute become an act of merit?

3. Does receiving or accepting an unmerited offer (gift) of something become merited merely by the acceptance? In other words, is it only by grace if accepted unwillingly, or at least completely passively? (or unknowingly)

4. Does any cooperation in the reception or acceptance of the gift or attribute remove it from the category of grace?

5. Does submitting either actively or passively to any condition attached to the gift remove the gift from the category of grace?

6. If a gift is sought, is it merited and not of grace?

7. Is begging a meritorious action?

Please answer by exegesis of relevant passages of scripture.

It would be most helpful, it seems to me, if it can be determined what the biblical meaning of "grace" is. Websters defines it (1) as "unmerited devine assistance given man for his regeneration or sanctification", and (2) "a state of sanctification enjoyed through divine grace", and (3) "a virtue coming from God".

χάρις
charis
khar'-ece
Grace-------Meaning favour undeserved. Divine influence upon the heart.

Note: I understand "merit" to mean "deserve".

Spiritual credit held to be earned by performance of righteous acts and to ensure future benefits.

(As in, one person does what another does not do, therefore the logical diference between the two, is the one who does = receives the benefit, and the one who does not do = does not receive the benefit. Ultimately the diference lies within the "doer" and not the "giver" or the "non-doer".
Arminianism is a "doer" religion. Calvinism is a "grace" religion.
"Doer" is another term for "worker".

These questions readily come to mind (You may think of others).

1. Are any or all these definitions biblically correct?

No view that puts any focus on "doing" unless the "doer" Is God alone, is biblical in the matter of salvation by grace alone, which Arminianism inherantly denies.

2. When does an act or attribute become an act of merit?

Any act of "doing" that leads to spiritual life, is considered an act of merit, and a huge one at that in light of scripture.

3. Does receiving or accepting an unmerited offer (gift) of something become merited merely by the acceptance? In other words, is it only by grace if accepted unwillingly, or at least completely passively? (or unknowingly)

It is of grace when it is "no longer" of works (doing) as scripture plainly teaches. Grace plus nothing.

4. Does any cooperation in the reception or acceptance of the gift or attribute remove it from the category of grace?

Absolutely. For then grace becomes no longer grace, but works.

5. Does submitting either actively or passively to any condition attached to the gift remove the gift from the category of grace?

It is not of grace if there is any "doing" by us. It then becomes "works".

6. If a gift is sought, is it merited and not of grace?

Grace alone gives the gift to those who do not seek it. That is why salvation is a gift of "grace" alone.

7. Is begging a meritorious action?

Begging for the gift would only happen if the beggar has been regenerated, and then the gift is freely and beggarly received.

No beggar "at this point" would refuse the gift nor dare to think he has a right to it because of his begging. This is what we call Irresistable grace btw.

Note: Dear Arminian. If you found yourself at one time in a situation where the demands of the gospel were laid upon your heart, namely your guilt and the need for repentance and faith, and that you could no longer spurn such a demand, and so you did submit to grace, and repent and believe, then you were regenerated at the point where you could do nothing but submit to God. Being regenerated, you then freely embraced the good news and were converted. Not because of "anything" which you had done, but according to His mercy!

There were quite a few scriptures in my answers. See if you can find them!

Mark

Homer, is Webster's the place to find the Biblical meaning of ""grace"? Should our chief source not be the Bible itself ---- particularly the New Testament where the Greek word "charis" is found 148 times?

Try pronouncing "charis" over and over and faster and faster. (Pronounce the "i" as a long "e"). Do you find that after a while you are pronouncing the English word "grace"?

Some lexicons say that "charis" is derivied from "chairō" a Greek verb which means "rejoice". A related noun is "chara" which means "joy".

Lexicons give the meanings "favour", "charm" (graciousness), and "thanks" as meanings of the word. We can find these meanings throughout the New Testament. The passage in Titus 2 also indicates that "grace", that is the favour of God, has also been given by God as enablement to do what we are otherwise unable to consistently do.

For the grace of God has appeared for the salvation of all people, training us to reject irreverence and worldly passions, and to live sensibly, righteously, and piously in the present age, awaiting the happy hope, and the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior Jesus Christ, who gave Himself on our behalf to redeem us from all lawlessness and to purify for himself a people of his own who are zealous for good works. Titus 2:11-14

What a gift of enablement God has given to His people! We read that if we have a time of need, where we can't seem to resist temptation, God's enabling grace is available.

For we have not a high priest who is unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but one who in every respect has been tempted as we are, yet without sin. Let us then with confidence draw near to the throne of grace, that we may receive mercy and find grace to help in time of need. Hebrews 4:15,16

As for the other ways in which "charis" is used in the NT, here are a few examples of each:

Favour: Luke 1:30; 2:52; Acts 2:47, Acts 7:10, 46

Charm (graciousness) Luke 2:40, 4:22, John 1:14, Acts 6:8

Thanks Luke 6:32,34; Luke 17:9

Mark,

You wrote:

Spiritual credit held to be earned by performance of righteous acts and to ensure future benefits.

(As in, one person does what another does not do, therefore the logical diference between the two, is the one who does = receives the benefit, and the one who does not do = does not receive the benefit. Ultimately the diference lies within the "doer" and not the "giver" or the "non-doer".
Arminianism is a "doer" religion. Calvinism is a "grace" religion.
"Doer" is another term for "worker".

But what if the gift is of enormous value and the condition for receiving the gift is trivial? Say there is a crippled beggar on the street and an enormously wealthy man tells the beggar that just down the street there is a miilion dollars for him if the begger will go down to the bank, sign a paper, and pick up the money? Would the beggar "earn" the money or would it be a gift? What if the offer was made to two beggars and only one went? Would the one who went make a difference that was meritorious and thus cause the gift to become what was owed?

And:

No view that puts any focus on "doing" unless the "doer" Is God alone, is biblical in the matter of salvation by grace alone, which Arminianism inherantly denies.

In my above example, would the focus be on the beggar or the doner of the million dollars? If the story was reported in the newspaper, would credit (glory) be given to the beggar who met the trivial conditions and received the money or to the generous giver? Who would be glorified? Would the beggar be glorified at all or simply regarded as extremely blessed?

And:

Any act of "doing" that leads to spiritual life, is considered an act of merit, and a huge one at that in light of scripture.

Can you demonstrate this with exegesis "in light of scripture"?

And:

It is of grace when it is "no longer" of works (doing) as scripture plainly teaches. Grace plus nothing.

Consider Luke 18:9-14

9 Also He spoke this parable to some who trusted in themselves that they were righteous, and despised others: 10 “Two men went up to the temple to pray, one a Pharisee and the other a tax collector. 11 The Pharisee stood and prayed thus with himself, ‘God, I thank You that I am not like other men—extortioners, unjust, adulterers, or even as this tax collector. 12 I fast twice a week; I give tithes of all that I possess.’ 13 And the tax collector, standing afar off, would not so much as raise his eyes to heaven, but beat his breast, saying, ‘God, be merciful to me a sinner!’ 14 I tell you, this man went down to his house justified rather than the other; for everyone who exalts himself will be humbled, and he who humbles himself will be exalted.”

Here we see two men both of whom are doing something. One has abstained from doing bad and done good things; which doing Jesus does not deny. His activities are assigned not to works, but to trusting in himself rather than God's mercy. The second man also did something. He begged for mercy; His trust was in God's mercy, i.e., God acting on his behalf. Here, I believe, is the true meaning of "faith vs. works", trusting in yourself vs. trusting in God. I am not a Calvinist but my trust is certainly not in myself. I am the beggar.

And:

It is of grace when it is "no longer" of works (doing) as scripture plainly teaches. Grace plus nothing.

On the day of Petecost Peter used the keys given to him by Messish and threw open the gates of heaven with these words:

Acts 2:38
38. Then Peter said to them, “Repent, and let every one of you be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins; and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.

For the 3.000 that day who "were added the the church" by complying with the conditions as stated by Peter, did they make void grace by repenting and submitting to baptism? Or are those two things not "doing"?

And:

Quote:
4. Does any cooperation in the reception or acceptance of the gift or attribute remove it from the category of grace?


Absolutely. For then grace becomes no longer grace, but works.

I presume that is your answer to the previous question. The 3,000 saved at Pentecost earned it, as your next response indicates:

Quote:
5. Does submitting either actively or passively to any condition attached to the gift remove the gift from the category of grace?


It is not of grace if there is any "doing" by us. It then becomes "works".

And you wrote:

Grace alone gives the gift to those who do not seek it. That is why salvation is a gift of "grace" alone.

Consider Isaiah 55:6-7

6. Seek the LORD while He may be found,
Call upon Him while He is near.
7. Let the wicked forsake his way,
And the unrighteous man his thoughts;
Let him return to the LORD,
And He will have mercy on him;
And to our God,
For He will abundantly pardon.

So Isaiah was wrong here, it does not apply "under grace", or what? I do not get your assertion.

And you wrote:

Begging for the gift would only happen if the beggar has been regenerated, and then the gift is freely and beggarly received.

No beggar "at this point" would refuse the gift nor dare to think he has a right to it because of his begging. This is what we call Irresistable grace btw.

And this is unproved assertion.

Paidion,

You wrote:

Homer, is Webster's the place to find the Biblical meaning of ""grace"?

No!

Should our chief source not be the Bible itself ---- particularly the New Testament where the Greek word "charis" is found 148 times?

Emphatically agreed! That's why I listed as the first question:

1. Are any or all these definitions biblically correct?

And ended with:

Please answer by exegesis of relevant passages of scripture.

It is of grace when it is "no longer" of works (doing) as scripture plainly teaches. Grace plus nothing.

Eph 2:8 For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:
Eph 2:9 Not of works, lest any man should boast.

The fact that we are saved through faith, is the reason Paul says that our salvation is "not of works".

This is because faith is not a work. This comports well, with what he says here:

Rom 4:5 But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness.

Work is directly contrasted by "believing". Therefore, believing (having faith) is not a work. It is simply accepting a gift.

Paidion touched on several of the many meanings the Greek word charis (and its derivatives).

The Biblical meaning IS NOT: "unmerited favor." It is just "favor" (sometimes) and has its other meanings elsewhere.

One Doctrinal meaning of grace IS: "unmeritied favor." But whether this doctrine is correct or not can't be determined from the biblical word itself (as the word has no "unmerited" in it).

This is a very important distinction.......
Thanks,
Rick

Rick,

You wrote:

One Doctrinal meaning of grace IS: "unmeritied favor." But whether this doctrine is correct or not can't be determined from the biblical word itself (as the word has no "unmerited" in it).

I suspect much of the popular conception (as in Websters) of the meaning of "grace" is based on Reformed dogma. And what it meant to the Greeks might not be worth much either. It would be good if we can show the meaning as used in the biblical text (and context). What did it mean to those who wrote and read the scriptures in the early period, say up to 200AD? Many things seemed to get rather strange after that.

Both Paidion and Derek have made a good start, but I'm sure we can do much more to clarify the issue.

Hello Homer,

You wrote:I suspect much of the popular conception (as in Websters) of the meaning of "grace" is based on Reformed dogma.

Correct, it is. And also the question of: Do we merit it in any way? comes from the Reformation (see "monergism" and "synergism" thread).

And what it meant to the Greeks might not be worth much either.

This link has some stuff on its development from Classical to Paul's use:
Grace

An excerpt from ISBE, Easton wrote:In the English New Testament the word "grace" is always a translation of χαρις (charis), a word that occurs in the Greek text something over 170 times (the reading is uncertain in places). In secular Greek of all periods it is also a very common word, and in both Biblical and secular Greek it is used with far more meanings than can be represented by any one term in English....

Naturally, the various meanings of the word were simply taken over from ordinary language by the New Testament writers. And so it is quite illegitimate to try to construct on the basis of all the occurrences of the word a single doctrine that will account for all the various usages....

Most of the discussions of the Biblical doctrine of grace have been faulty in narrowing the meaning of "grace" to some special sense, and then endeavoring to force this special sense on all the Biblical passages....

A rigid definition is hardly possible, but still a single conception is actually present in almost every case where "grace" is found—the conception that all a Christian has or is, is centered exclusively in God and Christ, and depends utterly on God through Christ. The kingdom of heaven is reserved for those who become as little children, for those who look to their Father in loving confidence for every benefit, whether it be for the pardon so freely given, or for the strength that comes from Him who works in them both to will and to do.

This (above, linked) article covers many details of different usages.

It would be good if we can show the meaning as used in the biblical text (and context). What did it mean to those who wrote and read the scriptures in the early period, say up to 200AD? Many things seemed to get rather strange after that.

Both Paidion and Derek have made a good start, but I'm sure we can do much more to clarify the issue.

As the link demonstrates: There is no (singular) "meaning."

I think the thing to do would be exegesis of each passage individually. The last paragraph of the ISBE excerpt has a general "concept of grace" (that I agree with). But as to individual meanings and what they may mean for doctrinal theology...each text has to be examined by itself, imo.

NOTE: I've been studying the theology of N.T. Wright who sees justification differently than the Reformers (and even Arminians). I can't go into details about it now but, theologian Aliester McGrath said, "If Wright is right, Luther was wrong" (will start a new thread on this soon).

Thanks,
Rick

1) grace
a) that which affords joy, pleasure, delight, sweetness, charm, loveliness: grace of speech
2) good will, loving-kindness, favour
a) of the merciful kindness by which God, exerting his holy influence upon souls, turns them to Christ, keeps, strengthens, increases them in Christian faith, knowledge, affection, and kindles them to the exercise of the Christian virtues[emphasis added]
3) what is due to grace
a) the spiritual condition of one governed by the power of divine grace
b) the token or proof of grace, benefit
1) a gift of grace
2) benefit, bounty
4) thanks, (for benefits, services, favours), recompense, reward

http://cf.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexi ... rongs=5485


Ephesians 2

2:1 And you were dead in the trespasses and sins 2 in which you once walked, following the course of this world, following the prince of the power of the air, the spirit that is now at work in the sons of disobedience— 3 among whom we all once lived in the passions of our flesh, carrying out the desires of the body and the mind, and were by nature children of wrath, like the rest of mankind. 4 But God, being rich in mercy, because of the great love with which he loved us, 5 even when we were dead in our trespasses, made us alive together with Christ—by grace you have been saved— 6 and raised us up with him and seated us with him in the heavenly places in Christ Jesus, 7 so that in the coming ages he might show the immeasurable riches of his grace in kindness toward us in Christ Jesus. 8 For by grace you have been saved through faith. And this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God, 9 not a result of works, so that no one may boast. 10 For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand, that we should walk in them.


Paul to believers in Ephesus:
1. Hey partners. Ya'll were dead in your sins.
2. Not only were you dead, but you lived just like the rest of the world and followed Satan and your natural sinful passions.
3. Why did you live like this? Because by nature you were a child of wrath just like the rest of mankind.
4. Praise God though, becasue He is rich in mercy and he loved you with a great love. And check this out brethren.......He loved you/me when we were dead in our sins. God made you and I alive in Christ. It is by grace you have been saved!
5. So now we are saved from our dead sinful state (nature) and He raised us up to be seated in the heavenly places with Christ Jesus.
6. Why do you think He did that? Let me break it down for you....so that in the future He can show the unfathomable (infinite and without measure) treasures of His grace toward believers in Christ Jesus.
7. You have been saved by grace throught faith. Check yourself now. You had NOTHING to do with it. It is God's gift to you. You didn't earn it nor could you. You and I have NOTHING to boast in.
8. Remember how you were a child of wrath by nature. Well, not anymore, because you are God's workmanship. You were created by God in Christ Jesus for good works.
9. Don't start patting yourself on the back, because those good works were prepared beforehand by God for you to walk in.

This is the part where Christians fall on their faces and worship God. All praise and glory and honor be to our Lord and King.



Romans 11

11:1 I ask, then, has God rejected his people? By no means! For I myself am an Israelite, a descendant of Abraham, a member of the tribe of Benjamin. 2 God has not rejected his people whom he foreknew. Do you not know what the Scripture says of Elijah, how he appeals to God against Israel? 3 “Lord, they have killed your prophets, they have demolished your altars, and I alone am left, and they seek my life.” 4 But what is God's reply to him? “I have kept for myself seven thousand men who have not bowed the knee to Baal.” 5 So too at the present time there is a remnant, chosen by grace. 6 But if it is by grace, it is no longer on the basis of works; otherwise grace would no longer be grace.

7 What then? Israel failed to obtain what it was seeking. The elect obtained it, but the rest were hardened, 8 as it is written,

“God gave them a spirit of stupor,
eyes that would not see
and ears that would not hear,
down to this very day.”

9 And David says,
“Let their table become a snare and a trap,
a stumbling block and a retribution for them;
10 let their eyes be darkened so that they cannot see,
and bend their backs forever.”


Bold, italics, and underlining emphasis added by me.


Blessings in Christ,

Haas