A reforming Calvinist's corporate elction questions

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Paidion
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Re: A reforming Calvinist's corporate elction questions

Post by Paidion » Sat Jun 25, 2011 11:21 pm

Steve wrote:While it can be disputed, I have always believed that "the elect lady" to whom John wrote his second epistle is a reference to a congregation, rather than an individual. The whole epistle can be sensibly read with this idea in mind—and I think it makes better sense of the plural "you" that is frequently used in the epistle.
I notice the letter is addressed to "the elect lady and her children" so that if the elect lady is an individual person, it would still make sense to use the plural "you" in addressing her and her children..

But sometimes the writer addresses the lady alone. When he does that, he uses the singular "you". For example in verse 5:

And now I ask you, dear lady--not as though I were writing you a new commandment...

To me it seems a bit far-fetched to address a congregation as "Dear Lady" (or even as "Lady" alone if the ESV translators were mistaken in adding the word "Dear"). I've never heard anyone in our day address a local church in that manner.
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darinhouston
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Re: A reforming Calvinist's corporate elction questions

Post by darinhouston » Sun Jun 26, 2011 8:15 am

Funny, I've never even wondered about "the Lady" before now -- if the "Lady" is the congregation at large, I guess think the children could either be the individual congregants or those spiritual descendants in coming generations. I guess it would be a bit odd to talk of a specific congregation as a "lady," but if he's referring to the church at large, that would seem consistent with John's use of "woman" and "bride" in the Revelation.

It's definitely odd to my modern ears, but I'm not sure what would be more odd -- using the term for a congregation or as an introduction for a specific individual lady. Why not use her name if it's an individual?

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Re: A reforming Calvinist's corporate elction questions

Post by darinhouston » Sun Jun 26, 2011 8:27 pm

I read it again today and I must say it sounds like he's addressing an individual lady. However, I don't see anything inconsistent with referring to an individual as an elect one. If they are a part of the elect group, than we can refer to them as one of the elect. That doesn't suggest they were individually elected for salvation from the beginning of time.

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Re: A reforming Calvinist's corporate elction questions

Post by Paidion » Sun Jun 26, 2011 10:38 pm

We often write letters to individuals, or to individuals and their immediate family. I don't see why John the elder could not have done so. Indeed he certainly has addressed a letter to Gaius . We are privileged to have that letter also(3rd John) in our Bibles. As far as I know, no one considers Gaius as representative of a congregation.

As for not calling the elect lady by name --- the Greek word for lady is "κυρια" which is the feminine form of "κυριος" (lord). This woman may have had a position of authority, or at least have been high in the society of the day, or possibly the wife of a prominent man. For this reason, John the elder may have thought it disrespectful to address her by her first name ---- just as we would not address the queen of England as "Lizzy" or even "Elizabeth".
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Re: A reforming Calvinist's corporate elction questions

Post by 21centpilgrim » Wed Jun 29, 2011 6:55 pm

Help me out here. In corporate election, is the remnant the elect or is it Christ? I have heard it referenced both ways and it is confusing sometimes.
thanks guys.
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Re: A reforming Calvinist's corporate elction questions

Post by darinhouston » Wed Jun 29, 2011 7:03 pm

21centpilgrim wrote:Help me out here. In corporate election, is the remnant the elect or is it Christ? I have heard it referenced both ways and it is confusing sometimes.
thanks guys.
I think what I would say is that even for those who believe "elect" tends to refer to a group and not an individual, the term can be used to refer to a given individual within that group or to Christ as the "elect" one in whom those elect people of the elect group abide. It is the individual choosing to abide in Christ that would enable us to refer to them as one of the elect or an elect one within the group which was elected from the beginning of time to be God's people because the elect one, that is Christ, made His own choice to be faithful to His calling.

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Re: A reforming Calvinist's corporate elction questions

Post by PapaJ » Sat Sep 01, 2012 12:40 am

Just stumbled accross this one a year late, I plan to read through it next time, right now I'm just too tired. I'm a always reforming semi-Calvinist type with a lot of insight on corporate election, just checking to see if anyone else is up for this?

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Re: A reforming Calvinist's corporate elction questions

Post by jriccitelli » Sat Sep 01, 2012 11:24 am

PapaJ, on the 'Mormon question' thread you wrote; '…there is nothing we can do to merit salvation, it is according to His calling, not according to our will'

If you feel words have no ability to convert then why are you even bothering to talk or post about the gospel, or religion? This is simply a Calvinist opinion.
Jesus (the Word) talked, Jesus preached, some had ears to hear, and people were converted.
I often challenge my Calvinist friends to answer why God has 'chosen' to save mostly western Europeans and not 'choose' people from the eastern world countries?
(Are all the chosen people born in Bible nations, only?)
Ans. God has chosen to save us through the preaching of His Word, it is His Word that must go out and save. Just as His Word reached Paul, Jeremiah, Samuel and Abraham.

Israel was the 'chosen', now the Gentiles, and yet Israel again, but not all Israel, is Israel.
You see they that 'were' are not, and those who were 'are', Understand.
I look forward to your insight on this.

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Re: A reforming Calvinist's corporate elction questions

Post by PapaJ » Sun Sep 02, 2012 4:16 pm

Ok I'll answer you first, then post my reply dealing with Corporate Election and the Elect Lady ater this.

My first thought was why are you bringing it up here and not where I posted the Mormon paper? But I guess this is the place since I hope it keeps the Mormon missionary from following this discussion, unless God wants him to read it. So since this is sort of a better place discussing Corporate Election, a place where Calvinist and anti-Calvinist would come, it’s good.

First I’m not a Calvinist in the traditional sense. A Calvinist and a typical Monergist would agree on issues dealing with soteriology, but like I said I’m only a 2-point Calvinist according to the TULIP, but I’ll acknowledge 3 of them. So more than Calvinist hold this position; all I’m trying to say is my views are not consistent with Calvinist.

I guess I will have to ask Steve if I can post the paper I gave him, 12-pages on TALON vs. TULIP, for all up for the discussion, to go at it.

I do believe posting ‘words’ with a logical or Scriptural thought using the Word of God will be fruitful, but only God can convert, if this offends you then you’re a synergist and to that I’m sorry for you.

It is my perspective that Reformed Calvinist are to the far right and Arminian Synergist are to the left and I’m in the middle. I guess you could say my reference to the Campbellites, Russelites, and Smithites (at the Mormon message board, forum) are either to the far, far left or totally off the chart as we would think of all Cults.

If I have not made this clear on any other post yet, it is my position that Jesus did not convert anyone during his earthly ministry. Nobody could be saved until after Jesus died and resurrected, establishing the New Covenant.

To say that God only saves western Europeans and not from the Middle East is clearly your misunderstanding. The ratio might be 10 western European’s / Asian / African to every 3 Middle East countries, but it appears you have left out all the African / Asian believers.

Read through my post below for who the Elect Lady could be, following this and you have a better idea for my answer to who the Gentiles being saved, are.

The OT Prophets are clear that the elect of God have been scattered into every nation to the 4-corners of the earth, so my answer would be no.

Yes it is though the preaching, teaching and now via the internet posting His Word, but the written word of God is empowered by the Holy Spirit according to the Will of the Father.

Please send me a Forum location where I can post information on your last question dealing with Romans 9:6, but not here. But I will say this if your understanding of God’s plan starts with Israel and then goes to Gentiles and then back again to Israel again, then we need to go to a dispensational forum location.

“You see they that 'were' are not, and those who were 'are', Understand.” Sounds a bit dispensational and not Biblical.

PapaJ.

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Re: A reforming Calvinist's corporate elction questions

Post by PapaJ » Sun Sep 02, 2012 4:19 pm

My moto is ‘Always Reforming’ but I don’t claim to be a Calvinist, being that it has too much baggage to drag around, I don’t even like calling myself Reformed for the same reason. Being a dispensationalist for over 20 years and then being taught by a Dr. Morey for almost 7 years I have found myself ‘Always Reforming’ as I would go through the Scriptures. I have also found these subjects easy to deal with once you get a clear perspective. For 20-yrs I tried to understand Election through ‘Dispensational’ lenses and it just did not work, then I put on a pair of ‘Reformed’ lenses for a few years to get all my questions asked, hearing Dr. Morey give his answers over and over. And for the last 4-years I’ve been very content with my new ‘Progressive Revelation’ lenses, as I study various subjects through the foundation of the Old Testiment.

First of all if you can see through your Calvinism to see Jesus then you are doing pretty good, some people are so into Calvinism that they can’t see past Paul to see Jesus any longer; and since you said you titled this post ‘A reforming Calvinist’ I would say your in a good position to hear this, since all I do is argue and argue with my hard core Dr. Morey clone peers. I love them and I’m sure God has a place for them, but I’m glad not to be one of them. The answer to their problem is corporate election, since the Reformers developed their system of thought around individual election instead of making the OT Scriptures their foundation. It is very important for us to understand that the NT is not competing with the OT; the Apostles recognized the difference and it is the reason they are always quoting from the Prophets more so than the Writings.

Starting with 2 John 1:1 since this is where most of the discussion has been; first of all I don’t believe the term ‘elect’ as anything to do with the Calvinist concept of election. As Steve has brought up over and over the word election or to elect or to be chosen are interchangeable. So we are dealing with a very special chosen or selected lady who had children. My first thought that this would have been a reference to Mary the mother of Jesus and the believers who gathered at her home. This matches up with “whom I love in the truth; and not I only, but also all they that have known the truth” a reference to the truth being our Lord Jesus. Then John says, “I rejoiced greatly that I found your children walking in truth,” verse 4. Now this idea has problems since those children would be as old as John himself, possibly around 70 – 90, so I doubt that Mary was still alive; besides if it was Mary he would have called her Mother. Therefore if she was an actual person the children in verse 4, the point that she had nieces and nephews seen in verse 13 would seem to confirm this was a real person. Also in 3 John 1:1 we find John writing to his “beloved Gaius, whom” John “loved in the truth,” an individual not a church, but in verse 9 John did write to the church Gaius was a part of, since John’s letter was not received by Diotrephes. Therefore John was sending his reply to Demetrius, back through to his spiritual son Gaius, verse 4.

It is also the thought of many that this is a metaphoric reference to a church in this area and the children being its members remember Christians and Churches in this area, at this time, were not in favor with the Roman Empire. John himself had not been arrested yet, so it was wise of him to make this type of cryptic reference in case the letter was intercepted by officials in the Empire. So when I consider all the above and other issues coming in from letters written and the OT passages quoted by Paul, Peter and James it is my conclusion that this “elect lady and her children, whom I love in the truth;” including “and not I only, but also all they that have known the truth” that this “elect lady” could be a reference to Jewish believers. My thought coming from a reference to John’s other recently written Revelation 12:1-6; with the women being Israel who produced the man child, a reference to Christ who would rule the nations and had been taken up to His throne, making it necessary to flee into the wilderness, possible a reference to her children being scattered away from their home. Then with Johns other reference in 2 John 1:13; her sister would be the Gentiles, John knew Paul had written his letters to; remember John is not the apostle to the Gentiles.

The point is very clear in the OT with passages within Isaiah, Jeremiah, Hosea, Ezekiel and the writings of Moses that Israel and Judah would be separated, scattered: Israel first around 760 BC into all the nations and Judah second before AD 70 when the Romans laid siege on the Zealots left in Jerusalem. Very few Bible teachers ever make reference to the fact that the New Covenant is a means of restoring the divided people of Israel. Jeremiah said, “Behold, the days come, says the LORD, that I will make a New Covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah,” Jeremiah 31:31. And it was said in Hosea 1:10; that “Then shall the children of Judah and the children of Israel be gathered together.”

Another theme that Bible students never seem to pick up on would help are those the Prophets say “were not My people” actually become Gentiles in the eyes of men to be restored at the beginning of the New Covenant, and in every generation after that their descendants continue to fulfill these passages. In Hosea 2:23 it says, “I will sow (the house of Israel) unto Me (throughout) the earth; and I will have mercy upon her (house of Israel) that had not obtained mercy; and I will say to them which were not My people, you are my people; and they shall say, Thou art my God.” All of chapter 2 is about the house of Israel, not the house of Judah and is preceded by Hosea 1:6-10 when Hosea said, “for I will no more have mercy upon the house of Israel; but I will utterly take them away, but I will have mercy upon the house of Judah” … for the house of Israel, they “are not My people, and I will not be your God. Yet the number of the children of Israel shall be as the sand of the sea, which cannot be measured nor numbered; and it shall come to pass, that in the place where it was said unto them, you (house of Israel) are not My people, there it shall be said unto them, you are the sons of the living God,” which was fulfilled with the coming of the New Covenant. Testified by Paul in Romans 9:25, 26 saying, “it shall come to pass, that in the place where it was said unto them, you (house of Israel) are not My people; there shall they be called the children of the living God.” And Peter when he said, “in time past were not a people, (house of Israel) but are now the people of God: (the house of Israel) which had not obtained mercy, but now have obtained mercy,” as Gentiles being grafted back in, 1 Peter 2:10. All the above was prophesized by Moses in Deuteronomy 32:19-43, referring to those He would restore, “I will move them to jealousy (the house of Judah with the house of Israel in every generation after the established New Covenant) with those which are not a people.” It is also said in Isaiah 7:8, “shall Ephraim be broken, that it be not a people?” This was a shocker to all of Israel since the tribe of Ephraim was the holder of the birthright, to be blessed with the most blessing over all the other tribes of Israel, yet the LORD did it all the same knowing what the end result would yield. Ephraim’s position is also noted in Ezekiel 37: 15-20.

The point to all this is the Calvinist are all wrong when they theorize as with the ‘golden chain’ that God foreknew a group of people before the foundation of the earth to be saved, when it says, “For whom He did foreknow, (the believing remnant out of the house of Israel, Gentiles and the house of Judah, Jews) He also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of His Son, that He (Jesus) might be the firstborn among many brethren (the remnant of Jacob). Moreover whom He did predestinate, (those being transformed by His Spirit) them He also called: and whom He called, them He also justified: and whom He justified, them He also glorified,” Romans 8:29, 30. And who do you think the Romans are? The ones being saved are descendants of “were not a people” (the house of Israel) who were scattered into every nation. This is why, with the house of Israel and Judah going into captivity before the Jews return to Jerusalem; Daniel receives visions of nations (the house of Israel already being scattered into the nations) that make up the Empires where the “not a people” would be scattered. Those returning to Jerusalem with Zerubbabel, Ezra and Nehemiah if you check their genealogies are those of Benjamin, Judah and Levi, the almost 700 other people who did not know their genealogies, could have been the companions seen in Ezekiel 37:16 “For Judah, the children of Israel his companions,” but in comparison to 49,000 from the house of Judah, those the Bible calls Jews, some 700 did not know if they were Israelites or Gibeonites. Sorry Steve and others, it is not a biblical position to say Israel and Judah had already come together before the time of the New Covenant. Not only that the view that Israel and Judah came back together in the days of Ezra is in contradiction to the prophecy of Jeremiah 31:31; which indicates the two groups were still divided and would be restored after the wall that separated Jews and Gentiles (nations) was removed so the Gospel could be preached in every nation so that God could save those He foreknew, the remnant of the descendants of Jacob, those God made these promises to.

I better stop here, this is already long enough to answer the question that the people of Judah, Jewish believers who were scattered before AD 70, could have been the children of a metaphoric ‘elect lady’ in 2 John 1:1. They could have been those who followed Jesus warning to drop everything and flee Jerusalem when they saw the horde of Roman soldiers coming toward Jerusalem around AD 67 since they had not blended in with their Gentile cousins seen in verse 13 or the “elect lady” was just a believer and her children.

I’ll try to give a shorter answer for Romans 16:13, Papa J.

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