Sun of Righteousness--Malachi 4:1, 2

[TheEditor]

"For, look! the day is coming that is burning like the furnace, and all the presumptuous ones and all those doing wickedness must become as stubble. And the day that is coming will certainly devour them," Jehovah of armies has said, "so that it will not leave to them either root or bough. And to YOU who are in fear of my name the sun of righteousness will certainly shine forth, with healing in its wings; and YOU will actually go forth and paw the ground like fattened calves." (Malachi 4:1-2)


Greetings,

I searched the site to see if any comments had been made on this and I didn't see any, though I could have missed them. I was having a discussion with another person on another Board and this issue was raised. In listening recently to Steve Gregg's comments on Church History, he had made passing reference to this verse and applied it to Jesus, so it kindled my interest in light of my recent conversation on another Board. I thought I would post my thoughts here and see what you all thought.

I would say as a prefatory remark that I have no problem applying this passage to the Messiah, as it appears that much of the OT prophecies have their fulfillment in Him and many commentators have applied this to Jesus, starting it would seem with Justyn Martyr.

In this case, though, I wonder if the Jew reading this in the centuries before Christ would have seen this as applying to the Messiah at all? For starters, it appears that the "sun of righteousness" is being contrasted with the "burning oven" of Jehovah's day. The oven would completely consume the wicked, but for the ones fearing God the "sun" would have healing in it's wings. The "wings" in question to the reader could have merely been a poetic way of referring to the "rays" of the sun. The visual image being the dawning of a new day with the warmth of the sun's rays shining. Interestingly, the Hebrew text appears to say the sun has healing in "it's" rays, not "his" rays.

The Septuagint text reads, "And for you, those fearing my name, the sun of righteousness will rise, and healing will be in its wings. And you will go forth and leap like calves loosened from bonds."

The Masoretic Text reads, "And for you, those fearing my name, the sun of righteousness will rise, and healing will be in its wings. And you will go out and leap like calves of a stall."

The following is from Keil and Delitzsch:

"To the righteous, on the other hand, the sun of righteousness will arise. Tsedâqâh is an epexegetical genitive of apposition. By the sun of righteousness the fathers, from Justin downwards, and nearly all the earlier commentators understand Christ, who is supposed to be described as the rising sun, like Jehovah in Psa_84:12 and Isa_60:19; and this view is founded upon a truth, viz., that the coming of Christ brings justice and salvation. But in the verse before us the context does not sustain the personal view, but simply the idea that righteousness itself is regarded as a sun. Tsedâqâh, again, is not justification or the forgiveness of sins, as Luther and others suppose, for there will be no forgiving of sins on the day of judgment, but God will then give to every man reward or punishment according to his works. Tsedâqâh is here, what it frequently is in Isaiah (e.g., Isa_45:8; Isa_46:13; Isa_51:5, etc.), righteousness in its consequences and effects, the sum and substance of salvation. Malachi uses tsedâqâh, righteousness, instead of יֶשַׁע, salvation, with an allusion to the fact, that the ungodly complained of the absence of the judgment and righteousness of God, that is to say, the righteousness which not only punishes the ungodly, but also rewards the good with happiness and salvation. The sun of righteousness has מַרְפֵּא, healing, in its wings. The wings of the sun are the rays by which it is surrounded, and not a figure denoting swiftness. As the rays of the sun spread light and warmth over the earth for the growth and maturity of the plants and living creatures, so will the sun of righteousness bring the healing of all hurts and wounds which the power of darkness has inflicted upon the righteous."

Any thoughts?

Regards, Brenden.

[dizerner]

[user account removed]

[Paidion]

Actually, Brenden, it cannot be determined from the Greek Septuagint whether the healing is in the wings "of him" or "of it" since the Greek word for both phrases is identical, namely "αυτου".

[robbyyoung]

I don't think this verse falls under prophecy...

Hi dizerner,

??? - Your conclusion is puzzling. Verse 5 is clearly giving us a marker concerning "this prophecy", therefore, compare Luke 1:17 & Mal 4:6, also Matt 17:10-13 & Mal 4:5. IMO, the day has come and gone. The Old Covenant system did burn as an oven and the remaining, unbelieving Jews, were judged as the elect were raptured before The Wrath of God. Who then ruled the wicked people with a rod of iron alongside Yeshua during this time of judgement (68-70AD) - Just as Malachi prophesied and the NT Writers reiterates.

God Bless!

[dizerner]

[user account removed]

[TheEditor]

Thanks for the input.

Regards, Brenden.

[robbyyoung]

Hi dizerner, my response is in RED with all due respect and kindness.

I don't think this verse falls under prophecy...

Hi dizerner,

??? - Your conclusion is puzzling. Verse 5 is clearly giving us a marker concerning "this prophecy", therefore, compare Luke 1:17 & Mal 4:6, also Matt 17:10-13 & Mal 4:5. IMO, the day has come and gone. The Old Covenant system did burn as an oven and the remaining, unbelieving Jews, were judged as the elect were raptured before The Wrath of God. Who then ruled the wicked people with a rod of iron alongside Yeshua during this time of judgement (68-70AD) - Just as Malachi prophesied and the NT Writers reiterates.

God Bless!

You're absolutely right that it is prophecy in a way, I actually meant concerning the Messiah specifically, so Messianic prophecy. ??? - dizerner, this has everything to do with Messianic prophecy. This is talking about Israel's judgement and restoration, brought about by Yeshua's work. Why or what is causing you to divorce the context of prophecy, Messianic and the like, from the text?

I actually see Scriptures like this as having an abiding fulfillment for all times, in other words, if I fear God's name now than this prophecy also applies to me. IMO, this is a mistake. This is why so many errant eschatological doctrines exist, let me explain. This is a "Timed Text" that relates to a particular people, place, and time within YAHWEH's salvation parameters towards Israel. THIS PROPHECY DOES NOT APPLY TO YOU or anyone else outside it's fulfillment, which was during the 1st Century. With that being said, fearing God can be deemed as an everlasting principle, BUT THIS PROPHECY will NEVER apply or have multiple fulfillments. Rather, it has a definite one-time consummation, NEVER to be repeated afterwards!

I agree the OC system burned as an oven, so to speak, but I do not think the Scripture indicates the rapture happens without some very significant things happening that we would see around us today. In other words, Biblically, the rapture could not happened unless A., B., C., etc. And what is this A, B, & C? I guarantee whatever it is that you think applies to another people outside the 1st Century, you will fail to prove it with scripture. Scripture clearly teaches who is in view, and we ARE NOT in "The Rapture" scenario.

That's why the entire import of the New Testament that our lives should be a continual lookout for Christ, ??? - this is created out of a eschatological presupposition divorced from what the text actually teaches and says. Again, last days prophecies DO NOT have these types of perpetual consummated meanings.

to support which is indeed part of the very Gospel itself, has not simply "expired" and to say so is to contradict the Word of God and make it null and void. dizerner, you are at odds with YAHWEH, not me. I DID NOT say that "The Gospel" was "Age-During", YAHWEH did! And He said it in the context of His then destruction of the current age as the new age was being ushered in. The Gospel was "Age-During" for approximately 40 years before the judgment. This would be the so-called, "Great Commission" instructed by Yeshua and confirmed by The Apostles, that this mission was in fact ACCOMPLISHED! The Great Commission had a purpose. Judgment was pending and The Elect, The Church, and prophecy was finally coming to it's consummation. Post 70AD, we have NO GREAT COMMISSION! Yet this does not prohibit us from telling The Gospel story. YAHWEH is now tabernacled with us and there is NO future judgment to end AN AGE. Though there are many ages in our future, Christ's Kingdom has no end.

If Christ says "what I say to you I say to all" and someone redefines and contradicts that meaning, I do not accept the redefinition and contradiction because to do so would be to deny the Spirit and the Word. dizerner, are you serious? Mark 13:37 denotes the ALL in THAT GENERATION! Therefore, this whole idea of "redefinition" is mute. What you are doing is clear "Eisegesis" from a presupposition alien from the entire context of "The discourse" alongside Luke and Matthew's account.

I also find no way to harmonize fulfillment of all these prophesies with 70AD alone, dizerner, if you were, let's say, a Thessalonian in the 1st Century, nurtured and taught by Paul, your "NO WAY" comment would be laughable! You would have believed, in your lifetime, Christ was coming back, The Resurrection was going to happen, and judgment was coming! Why? Because The Holy Spirit, YESHUA, The Apostles, and YAHWEH all confirmed it! So, was the entire 1st Century Church, Yeshua, The Holy Spirit, and The Apostles PREPOSTEROUS?

in fact I find that preposterous, and that's what troublesome! Because your accusation isn't against me but against what The Holy Spirit revealed to The NT Writers, which YOU AND I should affirm!

even though I do think it fulfilled many prophecies of judgment. Prophecies also can be seen to be layered, and have dual application. ??? - This is another attempt to explain away what scripture said. Therefore, the confused makes claims that, Oh yeah - everything was fulfilled, but it's going to happen AGAIN! Oh really? Then what's with, "The Preposterous" statement? Dual application means it, in fact, did happen! But these tricks won't work! There is no justification in any last days prophecy as spoken by Yeshua and The Apostles, as the last prophets to properly interpret these things for us, that dual fulfillment exist! Therefore, IMO it's simply made-up by man's presuppositions for refusing to accept what scripture says regarding the timing of fulfillment. Nevertheless, our lack of understanding doesn't undermine The Prophet's utterances and God's faithfulness in it's fulfillment!

But I know even if we hashed it out neither of us would change our opinions and I do wish you the very best in your spiritual walk. God bless! Fair enough. One day we will once and for all-time have all the answers to our questions satisfied. Until then, may God richly bless you and yours.

[Paidion]

I agree the OC system burned as an oven, so to speak, but I do not think the Scripture indicates the rapture happens without some very significant things happening that we would see around us today. In other words, Biblically, the rapture could not happened unless A., B., C., etc. And what is this A, B, & C? I guarantee whatever it is that you think applies to another people outside the 1st Century, you will fail to prove it with scripture. Scripture clearly teaches who is in view, and we ARE NOT in "The Rapture" scenario.

We find the A.,B., C., etc. stated in the following passage:

Now concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered together to him, we ask you, Brothers, not to be quickly agitated, either by spirit or a discourse, or a letter as if from us, to the effect that the day of the Lord has come. Let no one deceive you in any way. For that day will not come, unless the apostasy comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction, who opposes and exalts himself against every so-called god or object of worship, so that he takes his seat in the temple of God, proclaiming himself to be God. Do you not remember that when I was still with you I told you these things? And you know what is restraining him now so that he may be revealed in his time. For the secret of lawlessness is already at work. Only that which now restrains it will do so until it is out of the way.And then the lawless one will be revealed, whom the Lord Jesus will kill with the breath of his mouth and render inactive by the appearance of his coming.(2 Thess 2:1-8)

Paul began this passage with reference to "the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered together to him." This seems to be a reference to the "rapture" which he described in his first letter to the Thessalonians 4. It seems that some of the Thessalonians were concerned that they may have missed it, so Paul assured them that particular events would have to take place first, especially the appearance of the "man of sin" or antichrist.

[robbyyoung]

I agree the OC system burned as an oven, so to speak, but I do not think the Scripture indicates the rapture happens without some very significant things happening that we would see around us today. In other words, Biblically, the rapture could not happened unless A., B., C., etc. And what is this A, B, & C? I guarantee whatever it is that you think applies to another people outside the 1st Century, you will fail to prove it with scripture. Scripture clearly teaches who is in view, and we ARE NOT in "The Rapture" scenario.

We find the A.,B., C., etc. stated in the following passage:

Now concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered together to him, we ask you, Brothers, not to be quickly agitated, either by spirit or a discourse, or a letter as if from us, to the effect that the day of the Lord has come. Let no one deceive you in any way. For that day will not come, unless the apostasy comes first, and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the son of destruction, who opposes and exalts himself against every so-called god or object of worship, so that he takes his seat in the temple of God, proclaiming himself to be God. Do you not remember that when I was still with you I told you these things? And you know what is restraining him now so that he may be revealed in his time. For the secret of lawlessness is already at work. Only that which now restrains it will do so until it is out of the way.And then the lawless one will be revealed, whom the Lord Jesus will kill with the breath of his mouth and render inactive by the appearance of his coming.(2 Thess 2:1-8)

Paul began this passage with reference to "the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered together to him." This seems to be a reference to the "rapture" which he described in his first letter to the Thessalonians 4. It seems that some of the Thessalonians were concerned that they may have missed it, so Paul assured them that particular events would have to take place first, especially the appearance of the "man of sin" or antichrist.

Hi Paidion,

LOL...I was asking a rhetorical question. I am well aware of the passages relating to the precursors of "The Rapture". My point is, all roads leading to this Event, CANNOT go beyond "The Event" or original audience in which it was promised to. For example, Paul writing to the Thessalonians said this:

"For if (1)WE believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so God will bring with Him those who have fallen asleep in Jesus. For this (2)WE say (3)TO YOU by the word of the Lord, that (4)WE who are alive and remain until the coming of the Lord, will not precede those who have fallen asleep. For the Lord Himself will descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel and with the trumpet of God, and the dead in Christ will rise first. Then (5)WE who are alive and remain will be caught up together with them in the clouds to meet the Lord in the air, and so (6)WE shall always be with the Lord. Therefore comfort (7)one another with these words."

Therefore, any rational person reading this historical "letter" would clearly see the verbiage for what it is, and unequivocally would see how the original audience viewed this inspiring promise made TO THEM:

(1) = Believers who died during the spread of the Gospel in the 1st Century.
(2) = Paul, Silvanus and Timothy or The Apostles.
(3) = The Thessalonians.
(4) = Paul, Silvanus, Timothy, The Thessalonians and all Believers during THAT TIME.
(5) = Paul, Silvanus, Timothy, The Thessalonians and all Believers during THAT TIME.
(6) = Paul, Silvanus, Timothy, The Thessalonians and all Believers during THAT TIME.
(7) = The Thessalonians.

Indeed, The Event was to take place IN THEIR lifetime! Therefore, all precursors took place IN THEIR lifetime. We ARE NOT required to know how every detail took place, for it WAS NOT relevant TO US. However, we are expected to BELIEVE God when He said something was to take place. Whether it was:

Creation
The Flood
Splitting The Red Sea
Jesus's Resurrection
The Rapture
The Resurrection
The Judgment...etc, we must believe God.

This list should have something in common to US, Post 70AD Believers, and that is - We were NOT there, but The Timing is clear toward a distant past people, and yet, WE should still believe God at His Word!

God Bless

[Paidion]

I know how full preterists think, and to me it's nonsense.

Why would all prophecies be given only to the people of that age? And zilch for the people who lived in the following two millenia? Are the people of that age so much more important than the ones following?

Do you really think Christ returned in 70 A.D., and the resurrection of the dead took place then? Why was no one aware of it? Who was caught up to meet the Lord in the air? Why did 2nd century Christians believe that the coming of antichrist, the coming of Christ, and the resurrection would take place subsequent to their time? Were there ANY Christians who believed these events took place in 70 A.D. prior to the 17th century? Oh, I know—some say that Eusebius taught it. But He didn't teach that Christ had already returned or that the resurrection had already taken place or that the rapture had already occurred.