Hey now... please attack the actual theory of the Open View. Not a strawman. I know straw men are fun and all, but limit the theatrics so I can actually see some legitimate attacks on the Open View.
Now I know its easier and seems rational just to say "God knows everything" in terms of foreknowledge. It totally just seems reasonable to attribute that to Almighty God. When I first became a theist, that seemed totally like "of course" when I first started hearing those types of statements from various people.
To re-define the Open View for us all:
God has partial foreknowledge. Part of the future is foreknown by God, part of the future is open to be determined by free will agents, for good or bad, for or against God's will.
This is not something I had ever thought of as a new believer. Full Foreknowledge seemed to ring true. I may have heard about free will here and there, but not a really consistent open view of Free Will and Foreknowledge.
Now, do you really want me to respond to Matthew 26:34? Its a non-issue for the Open View because when the texts assert foreknowledge, the Open View takes it as such.
MY QUESTION is what do foreknowledgers do when they come across all the verses that don't seem to match up with Complete Foreknowledge.
Neither I nor Open View have problems with Matthew 26:34, nor your strawman.
Honestly. My presuppositions are:
1) Bible is accurate and trustworthy, historical not mystical, but can have layers of meaning
2) Bible should be taken as plainly written as intended to be understood in the genre, intended by the author
3) God means what he says, and is not putting on a charade for effect
See, because bringing up Mathew 26:34 as a defense for Complete Foreknowledge is like bringing up the fact that most wild sheep are brown. But not all sheep are brown. What about all the non-brown sheep? Lots of brown sheep don't prove their are no white sheep bros.
It DOES seem weird to only attribute SOME foreknowledge to Almighty God, and NOT ALL. I TOTALLY admit that that seems weird. But hey, I'm just trying to understand the texts that God wants me to understand in order to understand HIM.
So please, how can one theological group "explain away" one set of verses to their own liking/preference, while another theological group "explains away" another set of verses to their own liking/preference?
““Now we know that You know all things, and have no need for anyone to question You; by this we believe that You came from God.”” (John 16:30, NASB95)
““But of that day and hour no one knows, not even the angels of heaven, nor the Son, but the Father alone.” (Matthew 24:36, NASB95)
How am I supposed to read these two verses? God knows all things, but then says he does not know certain things in the texts, or acts or pretends like he doesn't. Jesus knows all things, but then says he doesn't.
hmmmm
I like the Open View in that is seems to make sense of most of the biblical texts and it also uses the principle I like which is "to take the text as plainly written". I'm sure we could come up with contradictions, but the Open View still make MORE sense of MORE texts than any other view I've considered.
ok, get your dukes up
Also: I would not say God MADE Peter deny Jesus, but that the devil was the one strongly tempting and weakening Peter due to his pride.
In terms of how God knew "3 times", you could just assume God knew 3 times would totally break Peter, and then God could "call it off" in the spiritual realm, or it would just be naturally over in the spiritual realm since satan would have successfully "humiliated" Peter enough, sadly. Just like Job's trials had limitations.