Did Esther sleep with Ahasuerus before beoming the Queen?
Posted: Thu Jun 28, 2007 9:32 am
I was teaching Sunday School the other day and got to this point of the story. I stated that Esther, as a young virgin, prepared for the meeting with King Ahasuerus, went in and slept with the King, as did all the virgin girls. That this is why they went from the "house of the women" to the "evening with the King" to the "house of the concubines".
I stated that you don't go from the house of the women to the house of the concubines without first compromising yourself in some way.
This was concurrent with all the commentaries I made use of and I listened to a few things (including Steve's commentaries on it ...though I can't recall if he went into depth in arguing the point), but there was a man in my Sunday School class that made the point that the Bible never says she slept with him and we must just assume that. He said that he doesn't believe we should assume from silence. He also made the point that they were again called 'virgins' after they were regathered. This is supposedly after their night with the king.
I was just wondering if I could have any comments on how and if I can be sure enough to state that this did occur from the Bible itself. Am I missing something?
Thank you
I stated that you don't go from the house of the women to the house of the concubines without first compromising yourself in some way.
This was concurrent with all the commentaries I made use of and I listened to a few things (including Steve's commentaries on it ...though I can't recall if he went into depth in arguing the point), but there was a man in my Sunday School class that made the point that the Bible never says she slept with him and we must just assume that. He said that he doesn't believe we should assume from silence. He also made the point that they were again called 'virgins' after they were regathered. This is supposedly after their night with the king.
I was just wondering if I could have any comments on how and if I can be sure enough to state that this did occur from the Bible itself. Am I missing something?
Thank you