Dt 28:63
It seems strange to me about how the word 'rejoice' or 'pleased' or 'delighted' is used below.
My 'understanding' is that God doesn't 'enjoy' brining calamity, or judgement, but does execute His wrath when necessary. Is there a poetic or word pattern at play here, because taken literally, it doesn't sit well. Any Hebrew scholars out there?Dt 28:63"It shall come about that as the LORD delighted over you to prosper you, and multiply you, so the LORD will delight over you to make you perish and destroy you; and you will be torn from the land where you are entering to possess it.
Dt 29:2-4
Is this a common Hebruism (sp?) or whatever, that it speaks of Yahweh 'blinding' people, whereas, from the details of the text, it seems obvious that it was the people themselves who had unbelieve. This verse seems to say it was Yahweh who was doing the blinding.2And Moses summoned all Israel and said to them, "You have seen all that the LORD did before your eyes in the land of Egypt to Pharaoh and all his servants and all his land;
3the great trials which your eyes have seen, those great signs and wonders.
4"Yet to this day the LORD has not given you a heart to know, nor eyes to see, nor ears to hear.
Dt 31:6,17
and6"Be strong and courageous, do not be afraid or tremble at them, for the LORD your God is the one who goes with you He will not fail you or forsake you."
Maybe this is less of a question and more of a thought, but from the above, it seems obvious that when God's promise to never leave Israel (or us by other NT references) is conditional...17"Then My anger will be kindled against them in that day, and I will forsake them and hide My face from them, and they will be consumed, and many evils and troubles will come upon them; so that they will say in that day, 'Is it not because our God is not among us that these evils have come upon us?'
Any thoughts are appreciated.
Les