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Peter's use of a 1000 Years
Posted: Wed Oct 29, 2014 8:32 am
by robbyyoung
Over the years I don't know how many times I've heard someone say, 'Well, 1000 years is as a day to The Lord', when discussing time statements of the Bible. This method of reasoning makes time statements useless to the audience addressed.
I contend that 2 Peter 3:1-9 contextually align with his reference to the following O.T. passages:
Psalm 90:4 (YLT) For a thousand years in Thine eyes are as yesterday, For it passeth on, yea, a watch by night.
Ezekiel 12:22-28 (YLT) 'Son of man, what is this simile to you, concerning the land of Israel, saying, Prolonged are the days, and perished hath every vision? therefore say unto them: Thus said the Lord Jehovah: I have caused this simile to cease, And they use it not as a simile again in Israel, But speak to them: Drawn near have the days, And spoken hath every vision. For there is no more any vain vision, and flattering divination, In the midst of the house of Israel. For I am Jehovah, I speak, The word that I speak -- it is done, It is not prolonged any more, For, in your days, O rebellious house, I speak a word, and I have done it, An affirmation of the Lord Jehovah.' And there is a word of Jehovah unto me, saying: 'Son of man, lo, the house of Israel are saying, The vision that he is seeing is for many days, and of times far off he is prophesying, therefore say unto them: Thus said the Lord Jehovah: None of my words are prolonged any more, When I speak a word -- it is done, An affirmation of the Lord Jehovah!'
Peter was applying these O.T. passages to his day. He was reminding his audience, vs.1-2, that it is The Last Days, therefore, the scoffers are present stating, "Where is the promise of his coming? for since the fathers fell asleep, all things continue as they were from the beginning of the creation." I contend that Peter was eluding to Ezekiel 12:22-28.
Peter continues and in vs.8, eludes to Psalm 90:4 with a slight modification to emphasize "There will be no more delay". This is seen in vs.9, (slack, meaning NOT DELAYED or PROLONGED) as it conflates with Ezekiel's text (see the highlighted).
I contend that Psalm 90:4 had it's prophetic relevance in 2 Peter 3:8. Given the complete context, a reminder of what has already been said, vs. 1-2, and applying Ezekiel's type or shadow as the "ANTI-TYPE" of his day", and therefore vs.8 should not be used as a tactic to misapply time, from God's perspective, when HE emphatically communicates time to us, from our perspective.
As always, I hope this fosters good study to get to the proper understanding. God Bless!
Re: Peter's use of a 1000 Years
Posted: Wed Oct 29, 2014 6:07 pm
by Homer
Hi Robby,
Seems like you are arguing against yourself there.
You wrote:
The "simile" is modified to note the opposite as well, "one day is like a thousand years". In other words, a very short amount of time can equate to a seemingly "Long Period" of time.
and:
Our modern day scientist conclude it would have taken millions of years for the universe to come into being, yet YAHWEH spoke these things into existence "One Day at a Time". As always, we should discern "TIME" from the context with good exegetical reasoning.
You seem to imply that the
actual days of creation could have been millennia, thus taking days in Genesis to be non-literal, though there is no textual warrant for doing so. Also can you show why an actual very long period of time might not be seen by God as a day, for example?
For the simile "A Day" may equal "Last Days", which according to the context, arrived, and thus, Peter's modification of the Psalmist quote, putting "A Day" as like a 1000 years! No doubt this period of judgement must have seemed like it would never end (like a 1000 years).
Since you take, or say you do, time statements literally, why do you not take " day" as just that rather than "last days", which apparently you believe covered three years or so? Peter's day is in singular form in the Greek in 3 Peter 2:9, 3:10, and 3:12. Seems to me Jesus also referenced "a day".
And why not take the following literally? Aren't the heavens and earth literal since righteousness dwells there?
2 Peter 3:12-13 (NASB)
12. looking for and hastening the coming of the day of God, because of which the heavens will be destroyed by burning, and the elements will melt with intense heat! 13. But according to His promise we are looking for new heavens and a new earth, in which righteousness dwells.
Re: Peter's use of a 1000 Years
Posted: Wed Oct 29, 2014 6:40 pm
by robbyyoung
My response is in blue.
Homer wrote:Hi Robby,
Seems like you are arguing against yourself there.
You wrote:
The "simile" is modified to note the opposite as well, "one day is like a thousand years". In other words, a very short amount of time can equate to a seemingly "Long Period" of time.
and:
Our modern day scientist conclude it would have taken millions of years for the universe to come into being, yet YAHWEH spoke these things into existence "One Day at a Time". As always, we should discern "TIME" from the context with good exegetical reasoning.
You seem to imply that the
actual days of creation could have been millennia, thus taking days in Genesis to be non-literal, though there is no textual warrant for doing so. Also can you show why an actual very long period of time might not be seen by God as a day, for example?
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Hi Homer,
LOL, you've obviously misread my statement. Your question is EXACTLY what I implied! YAHWEH spoke creation into being one day at at time, and these days, in modern science, project out to be long periods of time, hence my comparison of "One day as like a 1000 years". I said, this would be an example??? But, nevertheless, you are still in attack mode, so you'll see and read what your mind is accustomed to. And that's kill any attempt to see prophecy related to the 1st Century, because this GEM belongs to you. How about actually studying the text and Peter's OT reference I put forth first, instead of trying to disagree just to erroneously disagree.
God Bless and forgive me if I seem to be a little irritated.
Re: Peter's use of a 1000 Years
Posted: Wed Oct 29, 2014 6:52 pm
by robbyyoung
Homer wrote:
You wrote:
For the simile "A Day" may equal "Last Days", which according to the context, arrived, and thus, Peter's modification of the Psalmist quote, putting "A Day" as like a 1000 years! No doubt this period of judgement must have seemed like it would never end (like a 1000 years).
Since you take, or say you do, time statements literally, why do you not take " day" as just that rather than "last days", which apparently you believe covered three years or so? Peter's day is in singular form in the Greek in 3 Peter 2:9, 3:10, and 3:12. Seems to me Jesus also referenced "a day".
And why not take the following literally? Aren't the heavens and earth literal since righteousness dwells there?
2 Peter 3:12-13 (NASB)
12. looking for and hastening the coming of the day of God, because of which the heavens will be destroyed by burning, and the elements will melt with intense heat! 13. But according to His promise we are looking for new heavens and a new earth, in which righteousness dwells.
Homer, I don't know if I can take you seriously or not. You haven't made the slightest attempt to address Peter's OT quote as it relates to his audience. You are simply rambling on and on about stuff that doesn't even make sense in regards to understanding Peter's contextual remark.
Sorry, I can't help you until you actually start reading what the post is asking. If you have something to contribute to the actual post regarding Peter's quote and OT reference, please contribute.
God Bless.
Re: Peter's use of a 1000 Years
Posted: Wed Oct 29, 2014 7:07 pm
by dizerner
[user account removed]
Re: Peter's use of a 1000 Years
Posted: Wed Oct 29, 2014 7:48 pm
by robbyyoung
dizerner wrote:Are you saying that Peter was implying the opposite of the Psalms is also true, that one day for man is like a thousand years for God? Because I would see him as poetically emphasizing the same statement twice, from both angles. That is:
1000 man years = 1 God day
1 God day = 1000 man years
For Peter to completely reverse the meaning into:
1 man day = 1000 God years
Would only serve to undermine his own intended meaning of the verse he was quoting, to the point he could be seen as calling up as down, and right as left and... well you know the drill.
My writing skills must really stink! I'll rewrite the post.
Re: Peter's use of a 1000 Years
Posted: Wed Oct 29, 2014 10:23 pm
by Homer
Robby,
So are you still irritated at me?

Re: Peter's use of a 1000 Years
Posted: Thu Oct 30, 2014 3:38 am
by dwilkins
It seems to me that the passage implies that Peter considers himself to be living in the thousand years in question (however long that might be). Any thoughts on the implications of this?
Doug
Re: Peter's use of a 1000 Years
Posted: Thu Oct 30, 2014 5:27 am
by robbyyoung
dwilkins wrote:It seems to me that the passage implies that Peter considers himself to be living in the thousand years in question (however long that might be). Any thoughts on the implications of this?
Doug
Hi Doug,
Sure, but the outcome would still be the same. YAHWEH's longsuffering extended all the way back to the "Type or Shadaow", The Babylonian Exile, and Peter now applies this as the Anti-Type to his day, The Last Days. Verse 8, is dealing with judgement, and from what we know that judgement came as the Anti-Type of Ezekiel's prophecy. I don't see any justification or sensible reason to extend this judgement past the context of what Peter taught, which is:
> Last Days (1st Century)
> Scoffers (1st Century)
> Their soon judgement (1st Century)
> YAHWEH will no longer delay (1st Century)
> The Anti-Type is being applied (1st century)
2 Peter 3:8, in its context, is not nonsenical or ambiguous. It's the TIME parameter from YAHWEH's perspective, revealed to Peter, translated to our perspective in order to know a nearness of an event(s).
God Bless.
Re: Peter's use of a 1000 Years
Posted: Thu Oct 30, 2014 5:28 am
by robbyyoung
Homer wrote:Robby,
So are you still irritated at me?

Yes Homer

.
God Bless!