The Narrow Path Ministries

Greetings,

I was curious if any had an occasion to come across the view that the "god" spoken of in this passage is the Father? I was recently informed of this view and so I consulted my commentaries, and found that a few early fathers thought this as well as Adam Clarke. I was wondering if anyone else had any thoughts on this? The basis seems to hedge on "ho theos" as well as previous references in Scipture to God "blinding" people to the truth.

Regards, Brenden.

Irenæus (120-202) in his writing Against Heresies, Book III, Chapter 7, wrote:

1. As to their [the heretics] affirming that Paul said plainly in the Second to the Corinthians, “In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them that believe not,” and maintaining that there is indeed one god of this world, but another who is beyond all principality, and beginning, and power, we are not to blame if they, who give out that they do themselves know mysteries beyond God, know not how to read Paul. For if any one read the passage thus—according to Paul’s custom, as I show elsewhere, and by many examples, that he uses transposition of words—“In whom God,” then pointing it off, and making a slight interval, and at the same time read also the rest [of the sentence] in one [clause], “hath blinded the minds of them of this world that believe not,” he shall find out the true [sense]; that it is contained in the expression, “God hath blinded the minds of the unbelievers of this world.” And this is shown by means of the little interval [between the clause]. For Paul does not say, “the God of this world,” as if recognising any other beyond Him; but he confessed God as indeed God. And he says, “the unbelievers of this world,” because they shall not inherit the future age of incorruption. I shall show from Paul himself, how it is that God has blinded the minds of them that believe not, in the course of this work, that we may not just at present distract our mind from the matter in hand, [by wandering] at large.

2. From many other instances also, we may discover that the apostle frequently uses a transposed order in his sentences, due to the rapidity of his discourses, and the impetus of the Spirit which is in him. An example occurs in the [Epistle] to the Galatians, where he expresses himself as follows: “Wherefore then the law of works? It was added, until the seed should come to whom the promise was made; [and it was] ordained by angels in the hand of a Mediator.” For the order of the words runs thus: “Wherefore then the law of works? Ordained by angels in the hand of a Mediator, it was added until the seed should come to whom the promise was made,”— man thus asking the question, and the Spirit making answer. And again, in the Second to the Thessalonians, speaking of Antichrist, he says, “And then shall that wicked be revealed, whom the Lord Jesus Christ shall slay with the Spirit of His mouth, and shall destroy him with the presence of his coming; whose coming is after the working of Satan, with all power, and signs, and lying wonders.” Now in these [sentences] the order of the words is this: “And then shall be revealed that wicked, whose coming is after the working of Satan, with all power, and signs, and lying wonders, whom the Lord Jesus shall slay with the Spirit of His mouth, and shall destroy with the presence of His coming.” For he does not mean that the coming of the Lord is after the working of Satan; but the coming of the wicked one, whom we also call Antichrist. If, then, one does not attend to the [proper] reading [of the passage], and if he do not exhibit the intervals of breathing as they occur, there shall be not only incongruities, but also, when reading, he will utter blasphemy, as if the advent of the Lord could take place according to the working of Satan. So therefore, in such passages, the hyperbaton must be exhibited by the reading, and the apostle’s meaning following on, preserved; and thus we do not read in that passage, “the god of this world,” but, “God,” whom we do truly call God; and we hear [it declared of] the unbelieving and the blinded of this world, that they shall not inherit the world of life which is to come.

Other scriptural evidence that God blinds eyes:

Therefore they could not believe, because Isaiah said again: "He has blinded their eyes and hardened their hearts, Lest they should see with their eyes, Lest they should understand with their hearts and turn, So that I should heal them." (John 12:39-40)

as well as previous references in Scipture to God "blinding" people to the truth.














Why would Paul call our Heavenly Father "god of this world"? If the intent was simply "God" then Calvinism is true because nowhere else does the bible affirm God blinds all unbelievers rather then just a few under judgment.

It would seem to me that sense could be made of either interpretation (as frustrating or convenient as that may seem).

If God the Father is in mind, there does seem to be biblical precedent for Him doing similar things
If Satan is mind, there is biblical precedent for him having god-like power in the present age

I think it is more likely that Satan is in mind here. But I see nothing impossible about the alternative suggestion.

Steve7150 wrote:Why would Paul call our Heavenly Father "god of this world"?

Steve did you read the explanation of Irenæus?

Irenæus wrote:For if any one read the passage thus—according to Paul’s custom, as I show elsewhere, and by many examples, that he uses transposition of words—“In whom God,” then pointing it off, and making a slight interval, and at the same time read also the rest [of the sentence] in one [clause], “hath blinded the minds of them of this world that believe not,” he shall find out the true [sense];

God has blinded the minds of them of this world that do not believe.

He thought that Paul sometimes got excited in his writing and didn't always put the modifying phrase close to the noun or pronoun which it modifies. Then he gave another very clear example of the same thing:

And then shall that wicked one be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of His mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of His coming whose coming is according to the working of Satan, with all power and signs and lying wonders. (2 Thess 2:8,9)

This sounds as if Christ's coming is according to the working of Satan, but we all know "whose coming" refers back to the wicked one and not to Christ. Modern translators insert words into the text to make this clear.

But Irenæus's point is that Paul sometimes gets carried away and doesn't always have the modifiers next to that which is modified. The Thessalonian passage is a clear example of this, and so Irenæus claims that Paul did this with the Corinthian passage as well, so that it actually should read:

God has blinded the minds of them of this world that do not believe.

Irenæus's argument makes sense to me.

But Irenæus's point is that Paul sometimes gets carried away and doesn't always have the modifiers next to that which is modified. The Thessalonian passage is a clear example of this, and so Irenæus claims that Paul did this with the Corinthian passage as well, so that it actually should read:

God has blinded the minds of them of this world that do not believe.

Irenæus's argument makes sense to me.







Paidion,
For a fellow who believes in libertarian freewill and Open Theism you think Paul said God blinds the minds of unbelievers? This would be unlike any other statement in the bible.

Unlike any other statement in the Bible? Did you not read the passage I quoted in this thread?

Therefore they could not believe, because Isaiah said again: "He has blinded their eyes and hardened their hearts, Lest they should see with their eyes, Lest they should understand with their hearts and turn, So that I should heal them." (John 12:39-40)

Also:

As it is written, “God gave them a spirit of stupor, eyes that would not see and ears that would not hear, down to this very day.” (Rom 11:8)

The Isaiah passage is also referred to in Mt 13:14,15 Mark 4:12 Luke 8:10 and Acts 28:26-27