Hello JC,
A while back I asked Greg Boyd about how the New Testament interprets the Old. I told him it seemed as though the New Testament writers were really stretching certain prophecies in order to make them fit. He told me those writers were using a form of Hebrew interpretation called Midrash, which was favored by the Rabbis. Since our discussion I've researched this on my own and it seems that Greg is correct.
I don't know if you realize it or not but seeing the Gospels and/or NT as Midrash is quite popular among
very liberal scholars (such as
John Shelby Spong: The Gospels as Midrash). Not that a liberal can't be right about a thing or three.
Midrashic interpretation presents problems for evangelicals regarding miracles. To wit: Did they "really" happen...or are they symbolic? As you can see this cuts into the evangelical "literal" view of Scripture and the related issues of biblical inerrancy, inspiration, and so on.
I've provided a link below which gives a very basic summary of Midrash. Basically, it's not a "prophecy then fulfillment" approach at all. The ancient Jews saw things, not in this manner, but in a cyclical approach using types and symbols. Jesus leaving Egypt as a baby is not a fulfillment of "I called my son out of Egypt" but rather, it's a symbolic gesture. Modern day interpretation seems to favor the fulfilled prophecy approach to this passage, but it seems clear to me that it's Midrash. There are many other examples in the New Testament of writers using this method over the grammatical-historical method. Take a look at this basic explanation:
So did Joseph, Mary, and Jesus "really" go to Egypt and back? (if you see what I'm saying).
your link wrote:One way to understand the Jewish concept of prophecy is as thematic recapitulation, where a pattern of events replays the same theme repeatedly. For example one problem that western hermeneutics has never been able to answer satisfactorily is: how can Matthew be justified in quoting Hosea 11:1 ("When Israel was a child, I loved him, And out of Egypt I called My son.") out of all reasonable context as connected with his story of the nativity of Jesus in Matthew 2:15?(and was there until the death of Herod, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken by the Lord through the prophet, saying, "Out of Egypt I called My Son.") The answer is pattern not just prediction.
Liberal scholars, such as Spong and members of the Jesus Seminar have concluded something different than the author of your link. Namely, that prediction wasn't involved at all (they never "really" went to Egypt, but it is a good literary device).
If I'm reading the link author right, they also see a real prediction involved ("pattern not
just prediction"). If this is what they mean, then they would fall under a more conservative (evangelical) theological approach.
JC, your link is okay but not very detailed. Actually, Midrash is quite a bit more complicated than they say. From what I've studied, Midrash was gaining popularity and being used right around the time the NT was written and continued on in (post-Temple) "Rabbinic Judaism" (btw, Jewish people do not like that phrase...I asked them about it @ Beliefnet. It's "Orthodox Judaism" to them but that's another topic).
I concluded a few years ago that the Gospels and/or NT are not, in their entirety, actual Midrash (not in full but possibly in part). Midrash is "interpretation" or "exegesis" from the Hebrew word. And many, if not most, Midrash are in a style like what we would call "commentaries." There is a verse, for example, and a running commentary on its meaning and/or possible meanings.
In the NT we don't have
possible meanings. Rather we have the authors using the OT text to provide the
actual meaning. Now, would I be right to say, "They provide the actual meaning -- according to their interpretation"? Or to put it in a different light; is the Gospel of Matthew
his interpretation...his Midrash? Or was the author of Matthew divinely inspired in a more convervative way ("He wrote God's Word")?
To be sure, the NT authors quoted the OT in ways we would see as very bad hermeneutics. Or: We can't do that! They had no need for historical-grammatical exegesis...as that interprets the original authors intentions and meaning from our point of view looking back. Yet, when they quoted the OT they did it in a way -- a new and strange way -- that is either misguided or divinely inspired. I pick: divinely inspired.
So, for now anyway, I would say the NT has "Midrash-like" elements, and may have real Midrash at times. But when to decide it is a Midrash or not is where it gets tough. Did Jesus really walk on water? or was it a Midrashic, symbolic, interpretation of what Jesus was really like: "On top of all evil" (The waters or "the deep" were seen as the realm of some demons and/or gods, where they dwelt, or came from, in the 1st century. Also, "waters" were viewed as where Israel's enemies attacked them from: the sea).
Liberals differ on Jesus walking on the water. Some say it was a mystical vision...that they only thought they saw him. Others take it further and say the story was made-up....
Once again, well, I think I've said enuf on this for now, JC.
Thanks! I haven't looked into this stuff for a while

Rick