The Narrow Path Ministries

I was wondering in reading the accounts of the Lords supper and a thought came to my little itty brain. Did Jesus do the entire passover meal including the 2nd cup of bitterness, which was about the bondage in egypt if I am correct? Did Jesus wait until the 3rd cup in the meal to start the breaking of bread in rememberance of him and if so do you believe its possible that Jesus never meant for people to stop drinking the second cup? Sort of a reminder of the bitterness of bondage to sin. I know this is a stretch but any thoughts?

Jim

Hi, Jim,

Thank you for your posting. I have a real interest in eucharistic issues.

One should be cautious about placing too much weight on the relationship between seder ritual and the eucharist. In the first place, the timeline of Jesus' last week is somewhat murky, and it is unclear whether or not the Last Supper actually was a Passover seder. Beyond this, one faces the challenge of determining what the shape of a Passover seder might have been for Jesus and his Galilean disciples in the first century.

Jesus' intent can be understood well enough by acknowledging a general proximity to Passover & the Feast of Unleavened Bread, and by tracing his allusions to the Hebrew bible.

Shalom,
Emmet