THE REVELATION OF JESUS CHRIST ---- In what sense?
Posted: Sun Jan 07, 2007 12:43 pm
Recently, I have purchased Steve Gregg's book REVELATION Four Views. I knew it was going to be great, but after having purchased it, I have a small understanding of what a momentous task this was to produce such a volume. I highly recommend it to anyone desiring to do an in depth study of Revelation.
I wish to quote a comment Steve made concerning the very first verse:
The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave Him to show His servants––things which must shortly take place. And He sent and signified it by His angel to His servant John ...
Steve wrote (p52):
The expression Revelation of Jesus Christ (v.1), presents a certain ambiguity. The Greek allows that Jesus Christ could be either the subject being revealed or the one doing the revealing.
While I agree that the above statement is true, I ask, Does it exhaust the possibilities?
To me, the phrase "The Revelation of Jesus Christ which God gave Him"
suggests that the Revelation was given to Jesus Christ. The rest of the verse indicates that Jesus to whom it was given then sent His angel to communicate it to John by means of signs.
Suppose God gave a revelation to Steve Gregg. Would it not make sense to call it "Steve Gregg's revelation"? Or "The Revelation of Steve Gregg which God gave him"?
I think "Jesus Christ's revelation which God gave Him..." would be a perfectly valid translation of the phrase.
Any thoughts?
I wish to quote a comment Steve made concerning the very first verse:
The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave Him to show His servants––things which must shortly take place. And He sent and signified it by His angel to His servant John ...
Steve wrote (p52):
The expression Revelation of Jesus Christ (v.1), presents a certain ambiguity. The Greek allows that Jesus Christ could be either the subject being revealed or the one doing the revealing.
While I agree that the above statement is true, I ask, Does it exhaust the possibilities?
To me, the phrase "The Revelation of Jesus Christ which God gave Him"
suggests that the Revelation was given to Jesus Christ. The rest of the verse indicates that Jesus to whom it was given then sent His angel to communicate it to John by means of signs.
Suppose God gave a revelation to Steve Gregg. Would it not make sense to call it "Steve Gregg's revelation"? Or "The Revelation of Steve Gregg which God gave him"?
I think "Jesus Christ's revelation which God gave Him..." would be a perfectly valid translation of the phrase.
Any thoughts?