Derek wrote:Ev,
According to Phil. 2 what form (morphe) was Christ in before He took upon Himself the form (morphe) of a servant?
The form of God.
When did He make "himself nothing", and "take the form of a servant"?
Paul tells us:
- Philippians 2:8
And being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross.
Notice that the act of humbling himself (equated with "making himself nothing") is shown by Paul to be his work on the cross, when he became the perfect sacrifice for sin. Notice also that Paul specifically links this to Christ being "found in fashion as a man"; in other words, made just like other men.
But there's another passage in which he "made himself nothing, taking the form of a servant", and it records an incident shortly before he was taken away by the
Sanhedrin:
- John 13:3-5
Jesus knowing that the Father had given all things into his hands, and that he was come from God, and went to God;
He riseth from supper, and laid aside his garments; and took a towel, and girded himself.
After that he poureth water into a basin, and began to wash the disciples' feet, and to wipe them with the towel wherewith he was girded.
If this is not an example of Christ humbling himself, making himself nothing and taking on the form of a servant, I don't know what is!
Here's the verse for reference: "but made himself nothing, taking the form of a servant, being born in the likeness of men"
It sure looks to me like the Lord's "becoming nothing" or "emtying of himself" and taking on the form of a servant has a lot to do with His being "born in the likeness of men" according to this passage.
And it especially makes sense if before He took on this "form" of a servant He was before in the "form" of God according to this passage.
I think that explanation simply raises more questions than it answers. Because if his "becoming nothing" and "emptying himself" is all about his being "born in the likeness of men", then what did he
empty himself of and in what way did he "become nothing"?
Could this be when the Word became flesh and dwelt among us? It seems rather likely to me.
If that is so, why does Paul not tell us? Why does he make no attempt to link this event with
John 1? It seems a curious omission, if the pre-existence of Christ is his theme.
Thus I feel compelled to reiterate my previous point: there is nothing in this entire passage which makes any reference to pre-existence. Not one word! Even the concept of Christ being "in the form of God" is no proof, since we know that Adam himself was made in the image of God and did not pre-exist. It seems to me that the pre-existence of Christ must be proved from other passages; this one simply doesn't do the job.
And on the matter of this "emptying" - would that involve
losing the form of God? Is it even possible that Jesus ever lost the form of God? Because the passage never says that he lost it; only that he took upon himself the form of a servant.
Sure, we can argue that the "humbling" was all about being born in the likeness of men. But the apostle Paul actually says it was all about his crucifixion.
I think the reference to being "made in the likeness of men" is simply a reassurance to the readers that he was truly one of us - just as we read in
Hebrews 2:17-18.
- Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren, that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make reconciliation for the sins of the people.
For in that he himself hath suffered being
tempted, he is able to succour them that are tempted.
