God's mercy and justice

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_Father_of_five
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Post by _Father_of_five » Fri Mar 16, 2007 9:08 am

PAULESPINO wrote:Hi Todd,
I believe that God's justice should not be contrasted with His mercy; rather, it should be contrasted with human injustice. Since the beginning of time the world has been filled with human injustice.
I believe the bible teaches that God is just and if we will not follow Him, He will become our adversary.

1Kings 11:14 " Then the LORD raised up against Solomon an adversary, Hadad the Edomite, from the royal line of Edom."

God raised an adversary against Solomon. Now God is raising an adversary against Solomon because He love Solomon, He wants to straighten his ways. We can also look at God's adversary as a form of Mercy because if God does not discipline Solomon then worst things can happen.
As a father I will do the same thing to my kids in order to correct their wrong ways.
Hi Paulespino,

I agree that God chastens us as a call to repentence and said so in my second post in this thread. Here is the related part of that post....
Father_of_five wrote:
TK wrote:the wrath of God seems so clear in scripture (e.g. romans 1) that i dont see how it can be disputed.
God's wrath is poured out upon the living through the working of His Holy Spirit as a call to repentence. In this too He is our advocate in that He chastens every son whom He receives. It is God's will that all will repent and follow Christ.

Heb 12:7
If you endure chastening, God deals with you as with sons; for what son is there whom a father does not chasten?

Rev 3:19
As many as I love, I rebuke and chasten. Therefore be zealous and repent.

Todd
Todd
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Post by _kaufmannphillips » Fri Mar 16, 2007 10:20 am

Hello, Derek,

Please pardon my tardy response. So many threads to manage....
Quote: For what it is worth, the church never historically declared an "orthodox" explanation of how Jesus accomplishes salvation (in contrast to its taking a stand on the Trinity and the nature of Christ). There have been multiple understandings over time, and although substitutionary atonement is popular in many circles today, it cannot claim to be the Christian doctrine in this department.

Agreed. I am not stating that it is the doctrine, and have made clear that I thinnk that the idea Todd is expressing is part of the atonement.
I was responding to your statement that "I have understood your [i.e., Todd's] view of "salvation" to be quite different than the historical view, so I guess you are just being consistent. The language of "the historical view" suggests a unitary tradition of atonement theology, but the church did not establish one, and different understandings have been put forth by sundry persons in different historical contexts.

I understand this verse in light of Mark 10:45: "For even the Son of Man did not come to be served, but to serve, and to give His life a ransom for many."

I see the ransom as another way of saying "payment", which very much fits the Chrisitian idea of atonement. Christ gave his life to purchase our redemption.
Once again you speak of "the Christian idea of atonement," as if there were only one.


I am not contesting that the New Testament employs the diction of "ransom." The question is: to what extent was that meant to be figurative language?

The pre-eminent event in Jewish salvation-narrative was (and is) the Exodus. In that narrative, the blood of the firstborn in Egypt could be spoken of as having "bought" the Israelites their opportunity to depart from Egypt. But such language should not be construed in an overly literal manner: the "purchase-price" of that opportunity was not actually paid to anyone as part of an economic deal. God's mighty deliverance was not contracted for by that blood, and Pharaoh did not request that blood in exchange for allowing the slaves to go free.

Similarly, Jesus' death could be spoken of as "buying" the opportunity for those who encounter it to be profoundly touched and repent from their death-bound vector. But as with the blood of Egypt's firstborn, such language would be figurative.

Quote: And your citation from Galatians 3:13 may be understood in the same vein. When this speaks of Jesus being made a curse in hanging on a tree, this is not reminiscent of any sacrificial motif in the Torah, but rather of the bronze serpent being pilloried in Numbers 21:8f. (cf. John 3:14); the raising of the image on the pole was an iconic curse upon the power of the poisonous snake. When the people witnessed it, they were healed; in parallel, when people look upon Christ's costly witness, they can be healed of the poison that putrefies their hearts

Although I agree with your assesment of Numbers 21/John 3, I don't think that that is what Paul is speaking of in Galations.

Paul, (quoting the OT), says: "Cursed is every one that continueth not in all things which are written in the book of the law to do them." and then goes on to show how Christ frees us from that curse in the above mentioned verse by "becoming a curse for us". Christ takes upon Himself the curse that rightfully belongs to us. However you look at it, it's substitutionary.
Your argument is undercut by Paul's diction in Galatians 3: "Christ redeemed us from the curse of the law, becoming a curse for us." He speaks first of "the curse" and then of "a curse." If he had meant to imply direct substitution, then he could have articulated it in the words you have used: "tak[ing] upon himself the curse." But he did not use your words - he used his words. And his words fully afford the interpretation I have posited.

Quote: Such poses a remarkable argument on your part, inasmuch as you quote Ezekiel 18:4 ("God has revealed that the 'soul that sins, it shall die'") and without blinking assert the very antithesis of that verse - i.e., that in fact it is not the sinning soul that will die, but some innocent party! Astounding! While you yourself say that "Unless He has somehow changed His mind, (which I am not aware of), He has not changed the decree from Ezekiel above...."

But this fits perfectly with the understanding that Christ put Himself in our (the soul that sins) place. The Father treated Christ as if He had sinned, because Christ gave Himself for that reason. That is why it pleased God to bruise Him, because He layed on Him "the iniquities of us all". In this way, there is a sense, in which God looked upon Christ as if He had sinned, imputing to Him our tresspasses, while (if we place our faith in Chirst) He imputes the righteousness of Christ to us.
Perhaps you need to read the full chapter of Ezekiel 18. The fundamental theological point of that chapter is diametrically opposed to what you have written here.

Quote: Now we may turn to your citation from II Corinthians 5:21, which could be rendered "For he made the one not knowing sin [to be] sin for us, that we might become God's righteousness by him." Once again, we must note the Hebraic parallelism in this verse: Jesus becoming sin paired with Christians becoming divine righteousness. But how can this be so? How can Christians be an attribute of God?

I would interpret this in the same way as I explained above, about God imputing the righteousness of Christ to us, etc.
The problem with imputation is that it is fictional; it is not a real solution to a real problem. The sin still exists, however masked it may be, and God is not a liar, so he will not deceive himself or render a fictional judgment.

Quote: Pardon me if I have missed this along the way: where is there a text that explicitly speaks of God appeasing himself? Seems a bit masturbatory, doesn't it?

Propitiation (what Christ was/made):
1. The act of appeasing wrath and conciliating the favor of an offended person; the act of making propitious.
Let me clarify: where is a biblical text that explicitly speaks of God appeasing himself.


Shlamaa,
Emmet
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Post by _kaufmannphillips » Fri Mar 16, 2007 11:35 am

Hello, Steve,

Please pardon my tardy response. A bunch of pots on the stove....

Quote: You will be far from a false matter, and you will not slay a blameless and righteous person, for I will not justify the wicked {Exodus 23:7}.

This cuts at the essence of conventional substitutionary theory, in which a false verdict is manufactured (by means of the murder of a blameless and righteous


And immediately afterwards God in great detail showed and explained to Moses how a man gets clean hands and a pure heart through the Tabernacle. It could'nt have been very important to God since He spent 50 chapters on it in the Torah.
Yes, God mandates ritual to celebrate & lend didactic emphasis to atonement. But although the ritual is highly precious and significant, it is no more necessary to the salvific process than is the physical bathing of baptism. The ritual does not accomplish anything if someone has not actually cleaned their hands and purified their heart; and if someone has cleaned their hands and purified their heart, then the absence of the ritual (when due to no fault of their own) is not damning.


Shlamaa,
Emmet
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Post by _kaufmannphillips » Fri Mar 16, 2007 11:48 am

Hi, TK,
One point that really hasnt been brought up is the fact that Jesus is GOD (sorry Emmett) so it's not exactly like a father punishing a child for something someone else did. Jesus was "in on" the plan from the beginning. God the Father didnt "murder" anybody. Jesus is alive.


Thank you for the parenthetical :D .

God did not murder Jesus, but Jesus was murdered - even if he were subsequently resuscitated.

If Jesus was not God, then it is rather "like a father punishing a child for something someone else did." But if Jesus were God, then it would be rather like a schizophrenic punishing his multiple personality for something his child did. A vast improvement :| .


Shlamaa,
Emmet
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Post by _kaufmannphillips » Fri Mar 16, 2007 12:20 pm

Todd wrote:
Homer,

I'm sure you didn't mean it but it appears that you equated Emmet and me with those who are "disobedient" and "reject" Christ. I assure you that this discussion is only about how we understand the death of Christ - a point of doctrine.
It appears, Todd, that Homer gave you a seat at my table over here in the "disobedient"/"reject[ionist]" section. I do have a reservation, but I might already have a dining companion from Nazareth; they say he's a parthenogenone, but that's a delicate subject to broach in dinner conversation. Of course, I'm sure we could get another chair.


Shlamaa,
Emmet
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Post by _STEVE7150 » Fri Mar 16, 2007 1:19 pm

and if someone has cleaned their hands and purified their heart, then the absence of the ritual (when due to no fault of their own) is not damning.


Really? So God spent 50 chapters on the tabernacle in the Torah and took Moses up to heaven to observe the construction of it, yet the absence of it is not damning?
When i grew up they taught me one plus one equals two. Have things changed?
Clearly no one has clean hands and a pure heart because if they did, God would'nt have established the tabernacle system.
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Post by _kaufmannphillips » Fri Mar 16, 2007 2:18 pm

Hello, Steve,
Really? So God spent 50 chapters on the tabernacle in the Torah and took Moses up to heaven to observe the construction of it, yet the absence of it is not damning?
When i grew up they taught me one plus one equals two. Have things changed?
50 chapters may suffice to demonstrate the importance of a ritual, but they do not establish its utter necessity.

Things have not changed; people still try to make one and one equal three.

Clearly no one has clean hands and a pure heart because if they did, God would'nt have established the tabernacle system.
This is a premature conclusion. If 98% of persons had unclean hands and an impure heart, would not that be sufficient cause for establishing the tabernacle system? And do you not believe that your messiah had clean hands and a pure heart? Yet there remained a sacrificial cultus during his lifetime - operative for thirtysome years with a (putatively) perfect man in its midst.

Beyond this - the tabernacle system was operative as part of a covenant with the community of Israel, but what of the Native Americans (for example)? If the tabernacle system were utterly necessary, should it not have been made accessible to all who had unclean hands and impure hearts?


Shlamaa,
Emmet
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Post by _schoel » Fri Mar 16, 2007 2:22 pm

Todd,Emmet,Steve,Derek,TK,et al -

I have found this thread interesting and edifying as I too am somewhat uncomfortable with some of the ramifications of the substitutional atonement (SA). Since I've unquestioningly held this view until recently, I found Todd's and Emmet's responses to specific passages (raised by the others) most helpful.

My thoughts/questions thus far:

- Does this particular view of the atonement have an official name? Since I don't know what it is, I'll use exemplary atonement (EA)

- It seems to me that all verses discussed so far could fit the EA idea without doing violence to the text. As Derek stated early in the thread, both ideas could be different aspects of the atonement. However, if one view presents valid philosophical questions, it may leave it as an overall weaker approach.

- Could it be that we see all these verses through a SA grid? Could the SA view be a later construct not necessarily intended by Jesus or the apostles? Maybe the application of literal meanings to words like "ransom" may be the result of our grid instead of being open to the term being used in a more metaphorical sense.

- I'm still left with the following question: If God, through Jesus, takes our punishment for us, how is that really justice? Has justice has been served if a innocent party takes the punishment, even if they voluteer for it? Would we rather see the guilty party, in true repentance, humbly attempt restoration and reconciliation?

- The EA view doesn't cheapen the cost of sin nor weaken the power of the cross. It need not be feared.

- Homer's application of 1 Peter 2:6-8 to Todd and Emmet seemed to attack personally. The context of that passage equates those who stumble on the chief cornerstone as those who reject Christ as Messiah outright. Even if it is true of Todd and Emmet (they'll have to speak for themselves), that doesn't mean that the objections, questions and ideas they raise are of no value. We should stick to the issue at hand and leave the personal assessments up to Him who has the authority to judge. Since anyone can be misunderstood, I hope that Homer can clarify that he didn't mean it that way.



As you can probably tell, I'm leaning away from SA but still ultimately undecided.

Thanks for the dialogue,
Dave
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Post by _STEVE7150 » Fri Mar 16, 2007 2:54 pm

I'm still left with the following question: If God, through Jesus, takes our punishment for us, how is that really justice? Has justice has been served if a innocent party takes the punishment, even if they voluteer for it? Would we rather see the guilty party, in true repentance, humbly attempt restoration and reconciliation?



Shoel, The S/A and repentence and restoration are not mutually exclusive. It's just that God prescribed that the blood of Jesus cleanses us according to 1st John and Paul said "we have been bought with a price" which is the life of Jesus. And the way i understand it , is that Jesus has the authority to stand in the place of mankind and endure "the wages of sin." And mankind may accept what Jesus did or not accept it but God authorized the atonement because His perfect justice requires man to pay for his sins. So man must pay for his sins OR if all parties agree then we arrive at the S/A.
But that does'nt excuse man from following his continuing responsibility to follow Jesus's commands because if he does'nt he may lose the right to partake of the gift from God.
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Post by _STEVE7150 » Fri Mar 16, 2007 2:59 pm

Beyond this - the tabernacle system was operative as part of a covenant with the community of Israel, but what of the Native Americans (for example)? If the tabernacle system were utterly necessary, should it not have been made accessible to all who had unclean hands and impure hearts?


Emmet, The way that God prescribes to come to him will be
available to everyone on an equal basis IMHO although not necessarily in this lifetime, but that's a different issue.
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