The human nature of the Logos

Post by **_Ely** » Fri May 25, 2007 6:05 pm

Previous post deleted

Shalom,
Ely

Post by **_STEVE7150** » Fri May 25, 2007 6:56 pm

Do the scriptures teach that He gained back the attributes He "emptied" before?

"Father i desire that they also whom you gave me , may be with me , where i am that they may BEHOLD MY GLORY which YOU have given me before the foundation of the world" John 17.24

It sounds like "my glory" is what Jesus had emptied himself of and expected to receive back after his resurrection.

Post by **_Paidion** » Fri May 25, 2007 7:24 pm

So it seems we have a logical contradiction:

1. Jesus emptied Himself of His divine attributes, including omniscience.
2. Jesus regained His divine attributes after His resurrection, including omnicience.
3. Jesus received a revelation from His Father after His resurrection, about things which would shortly come to pass. Therefore He was not omniscient at the time He received this revelation, or He would already have known it.

The New Testament seems to teach all three, but at the present time, I cannot see how both 2 and 3 can be true. Does anyone have a solution?

Post by **_STEVE7150** » Fri May 25, 2007 11:09 pm

3. Jesus received a revelation from His Father after His resurrection, about things which would shortly come to pass. Therefore He was not omniscient at the time He received this revelation, or He would already have known it.

It is the Revelation OF Jesus Christ which God gave him to show his servents. So i'm not sure this means it's a revelation to Christ and also the fact God gave it to him may not mean he did'nt know about it. Also we don't really know when it was given to him.

Post by **_STEVE7150** » Sat May 26, 2007 6:58 am

It is the Revelation OF Jesus Christ which God gave him to show his servents. So i'm not sure this means it's a revelation to Christ and also the fact God gave it to him may not mean he did'nt know about it. Also we don't really know when it was given to him.

One more thought is that "which God gave him" could mean that when God gave Jesus his diety back after the resurrection Jesus received this revelation at this moment.

Post by **_Paidion** » Sat May 26, 2007 1:59 pm

Thank you for your suggested solution, Steve 7150. I have considered the possibility that He may have received the revelation while He was still on earth. I had never thought of the other possibility you suggested --- that He may have received it at the moment of resurrection.

The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave him to show to his servants what must soon take place; and he made it known by sending his angel to his servant John... Rev 1:1

Although it doesn't explicitly say so, one gets the impression that He made it known by sending his angel to John immediately after receiving it. In that case, He would have received it about 90 A.D. (or prior to 70 A.D. if you are a preterist).