Recently, I have purchased Steve Gregg's book REVELATION Four Views. I knew it was going to be great, but after having purchased it, I have a small understanding of what a momentous task this was to produce such a volume. I highly recommend it to anyone desiring to do an in depth study of Revelation.
I wish to quote a comment Steve made concerning the very first verse:
The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave Him to show His servants––things which must shortly take place. And He sent and signified it by His angel to His servant John ...
Steve wrote (p52):
The expression Revelation of Jesus Christ (v.1), presents a certain ambiguity. The Greek allows that Jesus Christ could be either the subject being revealed or the one doing the revealing.
While I agree that the above statement is true, I ask, Does it exhaust the possibilities?
To me, the phrase "The Revelation of Jesus Christ which God gave Him"
suggests that the Revelation was given to Jesus Christ. The rest of the verse indicates that Jesus to whom it was given then sent His angel to communicate it to John by means of signs.
Suppose God gave a revelation to Steve Gregg. Would it not make sense to call it "Steve Gregg's revelation"? Or "The Revelation of Steve Gregg which God gave him"?
I think "Jesus Christ's revelation which God gave Him..." would be a perfectly valid translation of the phrase.
Any thoughts?
THE REVELATION OF JESUS CHRIST ---- In what sense?
THE REVELATION OF JESUS CHRIST ---- In what sense?
Last edited by _PTL on Sun Jan 07, 2007 11:42 pm, edited 1 time in total.
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Paidion
Avatar --- Age 45
"Not one soul will ever be redeemed from hell but by being saved from his sins, from the evil in him." --- George MacDonald
Avatar --- Age 45
"Not one soul will ever be redeemed from hell but by being saved from his sins, from the evil in him." --- George MacDonald
Well that makes sense to me since it is God who knows the Son and reveals the Son.
Last edited by Guest on Wed Dec 31, 1969 7:00 pm, edited 0 times in total.
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The revelation of Jesus Christ, which God gave Him to show His servants––things which must shortly take place. And He sent and signified it by His angel to His servant John ...
Steve wrote (p52):
The expression Revelation of Jesus Christ (v.1), presents a certain ambiguity. The Greek allows that Jesus Christ could be either the subject being revealed or the one doing the revealing.
I think it means it's the revelation about Jesus Christ in which he is contrasted with the Christ of the gospels in humiliation contrasted with the Christ of Revelation who is exalted and comes in judgement. And God gave him this revelation that as a reward for his submission and atonement Christ conquers Satan and evil.
Steve wrote (p52):
The expression Revelation of Jesus Christ (v.1), presents a certain ambiguity. The Greek allows that Jesus Christ could be either the subject being revealed or the one doing the revealing.
I think it means it's the revelation about Jesus Christ in which he is contrasted with the Christ of the gospels in humiliation contrasted with the Christ of Revelation who is exalted and comes in judgement. And God gave him this revelation that as a reward for his submission and atonement Christ conquers Satan and evil.
Last edited by Guest on Wed Dec 31, 1969 7:00 pm, edited 0 times in total.
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