"If he commits iniquity I will chasten him"

[Guest]

I just remembered what made me think of this in the first place. I was reading Hebrews and I was considering the passages which sound like Jesus obtained something which He didn't have previously. The epislte says Jesus 'obtained' a better name than the angels by inheritance (1:4) and was made perfect through sufferings (2:10). But the passage which particularly interested me was the following:

"7 [Jesus] who, in the days of His flesh, when He had offered up prayers and supplications, with vehement cries and tears to Him who was able to save Him from death, and was heard because of His godly fear, 8 though He was a Son, yet He learned obedience by the things which He suffered. 9 And having been perfected, He became the author of eternal salvation to all who obey Him, 10 called by God as High Priest “according to the order of Melchizedek” Hebrews 5

I was thinking, how could it be said that Jesus "learned obedience". This made me think of the 2 Samuel 7 passage. Perhaps God would indeed have had to punish Jesus if He had disboeyed Him. Perhaps the threat had to be real so as to make the learning of obedience real. Kind of like Him being sinless is perhaps made more real (or 'impressive') if He indeed had the capability to sin.

These are just some tentative ideas really. Any thoughts anyone?

[Guest]

Okay, here's another similar-ish example:

Hebrews 10 quotes a portion of Psalm 40 as being spoken by Jesus:

5 Therefore, when He came into the world, He said: “ Sacrifice and offering You did not desire, but a body You have prepared for Me. 6 In burnt offerings and sacrifices for sin you had no pleasure. 7 Then I said, ‘Behold, I have come— In the volume of the book it is written of Me— to do Your will, O God.’”

Strangely though, no bible versions I am aware of captilise any of the first person pronouns in Psalm 40. I think it may have something to do with this line in the said Psalm:

12 For innumerable evils have surrounded me; my iniquities have overtaken me, so that I am not able to look up; they are more than the hairs of my head; therefore my heart fails me."

Is there any way we can allow for this line to have been spoken by Jesus? For example, perhaps it is not referring to iniquities commited by the speaker?

Any thoughts?