HELL

[dwilkins]

Could Jesus have reinterpreted that, in the same way that the NT writers do in other places?

I doubt he reinterpreted it. I think it's more likely that, in his references to Jeremiah 7 (where a great deal of the Gehenna concept was established in the first place), he is applying the Old Testament MO of prophecy against a doomed generation to those around him in the New Testament time. When Israel had screwed up in the past prophets came and gave oracles of doom to them. Jesus was a prophet (obviously, among other things) and was doing the same thing as Jeremiah (one of the reasons that he was accused of being a reincarnated prophet) to that generation. And, Jesus' prophecies against them came true.

Doug

[Roberto]

Could Jesus have reinterpreted that, in the same way that the NT writers do in other places?

I doubt he reinterpreted it. I think it's more likely that, in his references to Jeremiah 7 (where a great deal of the Gehenna concept was established in the first place), he is applying the Old Testament MO of prophecy against a doomed generation to those around him in the New Testament time. When Israel had screwed up in the past prophets came and gave oracles of doom to them. Jesus was a prophet (obviously, among other things) and was doing the same thing as Jeremiah (one of the reasons that he was accused of being a reincarnated prophet) to that generation. And, Jesus' prophecies against them came true.

Doug

Thanks, Doug. Are there scholars that take the opposing viewpoint? What is their argument? You can just give a link if typing it up is too time consuming....