Why no other evidence of the massacre of the babies?
Posted: Thu Aug 03, 2006 2:11 am
Hosted by Steve Gregg
https://theos.org:443/forum/
SoaringEagle wrote:http://www.carm.org/questions/massacre.htm
In the reports I've read, archeologists have found evidence of habitation during the early iron age, up to about 500 BC (which may coincide with the Babylonian exile). Above that, there is evidence of habitation beginning in the early byzantinium period, around 4th century, and thereafter. Between that, there is nothing; no evidence of habitation.JC wrote:jackal, please chronical this evidence if you don't mind. Bethlehem, according archeological reports I've seen, was a very small and insignificant town, which is important for a couple of reasons.
If the town didn't exist, then probably none at all, which may be why neither Nicholas nor Josephus reported anything about it.For example, if the town was that tiny then how many of its inhabitants were under 2 years of age? Probably not many.
Or, just maybe, the story of the slaughter was unique to the imagination of the author now known as Matthew.You might want to note that the massacre of these children (how ever many there were) is only recorded in one gospel. So even among the Christians, this wasn't a pertinent issue.
Except the most likely one - that the story is pure fiction. The gospels seem to bend over backwards to create a Jesus character that represented a fulfillment of scripture. The virginal nativity narrative, for example, being a fulfillment of Isaiah 7:14. Matthew himself points out that the slaughter of the innocents is a fulfillment of Jeremiah 31:15. Did Matthew win the prize for the story fulfilling the most scripture?It's difficult to discuss this without sounding insensitive but there are plausible reasons why this would not have been recorded by contemporary historians. Some reasons have already been given.
Another thing that stands out to me is that Luke is so careful in detailing even the trade winds of the Mediterranian sea. Yet if he and Matthew had copied from a common source document (along with Mark) like liberals say then why did Luke leave something like the massacre out?
No, which makes discussions like this so much fun.The argument kind of works both ways. Both conservative scholars as well as liberals have to wrestle with these issues and neither side has an air-tight case.
Let’s look at this another way. Go to the library and check out 10 books on Hitler. See how many of them mention a village in Czechoslovakia named Lidice and what took place there. By applying the same logic you used about Josephus’ silence regarding the Bethlehem slaughter, we might conclude that nothing occurred in Lidice, which would be a disservice to the 82 children who were slaughtered there on Hitler’s orders.Although much has been made of the Slaughter of the Innocents - and indeed, any such event would be tragic - there is no reason to assume that it could be considered high on the list of Herod's atrocities in terms of scope or magnitude. How many boys aged two and under could there have been in and around the tiny city of Bethlehem?
Matthew does not give a number. Josephus says that Herod murdered a vast number of people, and was so cruel to those he didn't kill that the living considered the dead to be fortunate. Thus, indirectly, Josephus tells us that there were many atrocities that Herod committed that he does not mention in his histories - and it is probable that authorizing the killing of the presumably few male infants in the vicinity of Bethlehem was a minuscule blot of the blackness that was the reign of Herod. Being that the events of the reign of Herod involved practically one atrocity after another - it is observed by one writer, with a minimum of hyperbole, that hardly a day in his 36-year reign passed when someone wasn't sentenced to death. Herod probably died in March or April of 4 BC; the Slaughter would therefore have occurred during one of his last two years on earth. It is doubtful that Josephus recorded EVERY atrocity performed by Herod; if he had, his works would be rather significantly larger!
Herod was nowhere near the monster the likes of, say, Caligula. More importantly, he was careful to not offend Jewish religious sensibilities; Josephus records only two instances where pious Jews questioned him on such matters. [Sanders, Historical Figure of Jesus, 19, 297] In Jewish eyes, Herod might have been a devil; but he was a nicer devil to have in charge than a Roman devil! The Slaughter of the Innocents, though, is something that fits in perfectly with the character of Herod. (Also, is it perhaps not too far a reach to wonder whether Herod - who had his own son assassinated - hired vigilantes of some sort to perpetrate the Slaughter, and that it was not connected to him until his death which was shortly thereafter, when it was too late for anyone to vent their anger on him?)