Re: 1 Corinthians 10 - Jesus in OT
Posted: Sun Feb 28, 2021 9:50 pm
I happen to possess a volume entitled "THE TEXT OF THE EARLIEST NEW TESTAMENT GREEK MANUSCRIPTS".
In contains copies of ALL existing Greek manuscripts that originate prior to 300 A.D.
I Corinthians 10:9 is found in only one of these manuscripts, namely Papyrus 46.
It reads:
Neither let us tempt "τον χρν" as some of them did.
Clearly "χρν" is in the accusative case (used as object) since it ends in "v". (pronounced as the English "n"),.
Before looking this up, I was sure that the word would be "the Lord" rather than "the Christ".
But it appears I was mistaken. The Greek word for "Lord" in the accusative case is "κυριον" and that for "Christ" is "χριστον".
So it seems obvious that "χρν" is an abbreviation of "χριστον" (Christ) rather than an abbreviation of "κυριον" (Lord).
In contains copies of ALL existing Greek manuscripts that originate prior to 300 A.D.
I Corinthians 10:9 is found in only one of these manuscripts, namely Papyrus 46.
It reads:
Neither let us tempt "τον χρν" as some of them did.
Clearly "χρν" is in the accusative case (used as object) since it ends in "v". (pronounced as the English "n"),.
Before looking this up, I was sure that the word would be "the Lord" rather than "the Christ".
But it appears I was mistaken. The Greek word for "Lord" in the accusative case is "κυριον" and that for "Christ" is "χριστον".
So it seems obvious that "χρν" is an abbreviation of "χριστον" (Christ) rather than an abbreviation of "κυριον" (Lord).