The Narrow Path Ministries

Paidion,

If your point is that God is more the same in more ways then my bible analogy then I agree.

Thanks,
Craig

My point is that though the Son is "the exact expression" of the Father's essence (as per Heb 1:3), this fact implies neither Trinitarianism (which didn't pervade the Church until after A.D. 325) nor Modalism (which ante-dated even Trinitarianism). Rather, in my understanding, it arises from the fact (I believe it to be a fact) that the Father begat His Son as the first of His acts "before all ages," as second-century Christians affirmed, and that, being God's Son, He is a divine Other exactly like His Father.

Hi Paidion,

it arises from the fact (I believe it to be a fact) that the Father begat His Son as the first of His acts "before all ages," as second-century Christians affirmed, and that, being God's Son, He is a divine Other exactly like His Father.

Before all age sounds like before time began. Is that what it means to you or what does it mean?

I am not sure how the second-century Christians understood their term "before all ages."

My personal view is that God begat His Son as a single act, and that either that event marked the beginning of time, or that together with the second event, (the first act of creation through the Son) marked the beginning of time. I lean toward the latter, since I view "time" as not some entity that was created, but the temporal "distance" between two events. The first two events that took place "automatically" brought time into existence. I don't claim that the begetting of the Son occurred "before" time, since the was no "before." And since there was no "before time" nothing happened "before" God begat His Son.

I don't claim that my view is entirely coherent, but I find other views, such as the idea of time extending infinitely into the past, or that God exists "outside" of time, and sees all events simultaneously, to be much less coherent.

Here's an interesting read on pro chronon aeonion.

https://books.google.com/books?id=6V-A1 ... sQ6AEIVjAJ

We know that 'from the foundation of the world' is used figuratively in how Christ was slain from the foundation of the world. So it can be used speaking of it being part of God's intention and purpose. Not saying that this governs all uses of the phrase but that it's notional use should be taken into consideration.

21¢ wrote:We know that 'from the foundation of the world' is used figuratively in how Christ was slain from the foundation of the world.

I understand it to mean that the crucifixion of Jesus was in the mind of God literally before the foundation of the world.