Romans 13 and secession
Posted: Wed Oct 23, 2013 9:48 am
The most popular view christians hold of government is, to use John Cobin's terms, that of the "revitalized divine right of kings". This view affirms that governments are a special sphere of authority like the family or the church. The view would affirm that certain actions are righteous only if done by a ruler. The same actions done by a citizen would be regarded as immoral . For example, if a ruler takes property from a man it is called taxation and considered a righteous action. if an ordinary citizen takes another's property it is considered theft and is regarded as immoral. As far as I can see, this view leads to some difficulties in its application, so I am writing to ask how these problems might be resolved by those who adhere to the divine right of kings view. These difficulties relate to how the bond between a ruler and a citizen is either formed or terminated.
Suppose that George is the ruler over a certain domain. George provides the services of judging disputes between men, enforcing his decisions, and imposes taxation. The ruler of a geographically adjacent domain is Felix, and he imposes taxes to provide the same services for citizens of his domain. Now suppose some men living in George's domain hold the opinion that Felix is a better ruler than George and also that they own land along the border. These men renounce George as their ruler, and pledge allegiance to Felix. George would like to behave righteously. Is it a righteous or wicked act for him to impose his rule, and, if those departing to felix resist enough, to shed blood so as to prevent loss of men, property or land from his jurisdiction?
Examples in varying degrees:
1. Arizona becomes overwhelmingly Hispanic and the citizens of that state wish to leave the union and join Mexico. Would it be righteous for the rulers of the federal government to shed blood to prevent loss of the land?
2. Suppose the same situation but the defectors load all their relocatable property onto trucks and drive into Mexico. Is it righteous for the rulers of the USA federal government to shed blood to prevent loss of property and men when no loss of land is at risk?
3. Suppose the same situation, but defecting men leave their property and land behind. Would the rulers of the USA be acting righteously or wickedly to shed blood to prevent the men alone from defecting. That is to say, can citizenship be unilaterally renounced?
4. Suppose the loss of land, property, or men is not the full state of Arizona but merely one county located along the border. Is it righteous for the rulers to shed blood to prevent one county from departing? What if it is only one city? One small town? What if it is only one family? What if it is one person?
5. Suppose the secession does not involve joining an existing nation, but rather the men commence the establishment of a new government. Does this change the answers you would give to the above questions? What if they wished to secede without forming a new government at all?
6. Suppose the kind of government differs and the two governments involved are any combination of dictatorship, monarchy, republic, etc. does this impact how you would judge the above examples?
If one affirms that it is a wicked action for a ruler to prevent an individual or a family from unilaterally seceding with their land or property, then it seems to greatly undermine the authority this view presumes that the ruler has. The divine right of kings view cannot allow this because any dissenting person may simply regard himself as having seceded to avoid being subject to the ruler. To avoid this there must be some point at which a ruler may righteously impose his rule against the wishes of a portion of his subjects. How is that limit established? If the line is drawn in the wrong place then we may err in regarding acts of a murder of men who resist one who is not their ruler as a righteous behavior of the ruler, or we may err in regarding acts of secession as righteous when in fact it is an act of rebellion.
Finally I would like to ask about the formation of the bond of civil government. Is there any other basis than "might makes right" by which we ultimately regard a man as having established himself as the ruler. For example, suppose the divine right of kings view affirms that timothy is a ruler over some domain. Mark organizes a rebellion and imprisons Timothy. Is Mark to be regarded as a criminal usurping the authority that rightfully belongs to Timothy, or vice versa? If both send you a letter in the mail demanding that you pay them a certain sum of money as a tax would you pay both tax bills? Is the ability of a ruler to enforce taxation decisive in assessing whether he has the god given authority to impose a tax? Does the passing of time change your opinion of which ruler is the one ordained by God to rule over you?
Suppose that George is the ruler over a certain domain. George provides the services of judging disputes between men, enforcing his decisions, and imposes taxation. The ruler of a geographically adjacent domain is Felix, and he imposes taxes to provide the same services for citizens of his domain. Now suppose some men living in George's domain hold the opinion that Felix is a better ruler than George and also that they own land along the border. These men renounce George as their ruler, and pledge allegiance to Felix. George would like to behave righteously. Is it a righteous or wicked act for him to impose his rule, and, if those departing to felix resist enough, to shed blood so as to prevent loss of men, property or land from his jurisdiction?
Examples in varying degrees:
1. Arizona becomes overwhelmingly Hispanic and the citizens of that state wish to leave the union and join Mexico. Would it be righteous for the rulers of the federal government to shed blood to prevent loss of the land?
2. Suppose the same situation but the defectors load all their relocatable property onto trucks and drive into Mexico. Is it righteous for the rulers of the USA federal government to shed blood to prevent loss of property and men when no loss of land is at risk?
3. Suppose the same situation, but defecting men leave their property and land behind. Would the rulers of the USA be acting righteously or wickedly to shed blood to prevent the men alone from defecting. That is to say, can citizenship be unilaterally renounced?
4. Suppose the loss of land, property, or men is not the full state of Arizona but merely one county located along the border. Is it righteous for the rulers to shed blood to prevent one county from departing? What if it is only one city? One small town? What if it is only one family? What if it is one person?
5. Suppose the secession does not involve joining an existing nation, but rather the men commence the establishment of a new government. Does this change the answers you would give to the above questions? What if they wished to secede without forming a new government at all?
6. Suppose the kind of government differs and the two governments involved are any combination of dictatorship, monarchy, republic, etc. does this impact how you would judge the above examples?
If one affirms that it is a wicked action for a ruler to prevent an individual or a family from unilaterally seceding with their land or property, then it seems to greatly undermine the authority this view presumes that the ruler has. The divine right of kings view cannot allow this because any dissenting person may simply regard himself as having seceded to avoid being subject to the ruler. To avoid this there must be some point at which a ruler may righteously impose his rule against the wishes of a portion of his subjects. How is that limit established? If the line is drawn in the wrong place then we may err in regarding acts of a murder of men who resist one who is not their ruler as a righteous behavior of the ruler, or we may err in regarding acts of secession as righteous when in fact it is an act of rebellion.
Finally I would like to ask about the formation of the bond of civil government. Is there any other basis than "might makes right" by which we ultimately regard a man as having established himself as the ruler. For example, suppose the divine right of kings view affirms that timothy is a ruler over some domain. Mark organizes a rebellion and imprisons Timothy. Is Mark to be regarded as a criminal usurping the authority that rightfully belongs to Timothy, or vice versa? If both send you a letter in the mail demanding that you pay them a certain sum of money as a tax would you pay both tax bills? Is the ability of a ruler to enforce taxation decisive in assessing whether he has the god given authority to impose a tax? Does the passing of time change your opinion of which ruler is the one ordained by God to rule over you?