If you start with John 6 you see that Jesus promises not to lose one of them. In John 17 he says that he has succeeded by not losing one of them. In John 18 he asks the crowd to let the Disciples go so that it will be fulfilled that he did not lose one of them. This seems pretty clear to me that he is interested in their physical safety.
Doug, I see your point. However, I am going to outline as briefly as possible, why I am unconvinced that Jesus' primary concern is for the disciples' physical safety.
1 - Jesus has, on several occasions, told the disciples that they were not to be concerned about the body, but rather, with the kingdom of God. Matthew 10:28, Matthew 6:24-34, and Matthew 16:25 are a few examples. Why would He now concern Himself with their ability to defend their physical lives?
2 - When I look at John 6 and compare it to John 17, I see the following:
- John 6:39 - God's will is that Jesus lose none whom the Father has given Him.
- John 17:12 - Jesus claims that He has indeed not lost any of those God gave Him, except for Judas. (This indicates that the first group of people are specifically the twelve).
- John 6:40 - God's will is that EVERYONE who believes in Him should have eternal life.
- John 17:20 - Jesus prays for EVERYONE who believes in Him through their (the disciples) word.
In other words, Jesus concerns Himself with two groups of people: the twelve disciples that God gave Him and those that would be saved through the disciples' words.
With that in mind, in John 6:39 & 40, Jesus indicates that both of these groups would be "...raised up in the last day." In what sense would they be raised up? If the last day referred to the day of His arrest, how could those who believed through the disciples' words be raised up, since the last day would have already passed?
3 - In John 17:11, Jesus is passing on the "job" of keeping the disciples to God. When He prays that God would keep them, He states a purpose: that they (the disciples) might be one, even as Jesus and the Father are one, not that their physical safety would be secure. In John 17:21, in His prayer for the second group of believers, His purpose is the same: that they all might be one, even as He and the Father are one. If this second group includes all believers up until our current time, obviously God's will has not been accomplished because many Christians have not been 'kept' physically safe.
It also seems to me, that a sense of oneness is not reliant upon physical protection, but rather, spiritual protection. Also, if we believe that Jesus only prayed the will of the Father, and Jesus prayed that God would keep them now that Jesus was returning to the Father, why would He advise them to buy swords to protect themselves? God ought to be just as proficient at sparing them physically as Jesus was.
This all brings us back to the question, "Why would Jesus request that the disciples not be arrested with Him in order that they might be "kept" as He said they would?" I haven't got a concrete answer but I would like to posit a theory.
We know that the disciples did not have a good grasp of the concept of how Jesus would usher in the kingdom. They still expected that His kingdom would be a physical one in which He would be King. They expected to be freed from the tyranny of Rome. We know that Jesus knew Peter would betray Him. We know that Thomas had lost faith to the degree that he would not believe Jesus was risen from the dead until he actually saw Jesus with his own eyes.
We also know that the reason given for them to 'tarry one hour' in the Garden of Gethsemane was to avoid temptation. (Matt 26:40 & 41). What temptation? Is it possible that one or more of the disciples would have been 'lost' if they had to endure what Jesus endured in the course of His trial and crucifixion? If Peter denied Christ even though he was watching from the back row (so to speak), is it possible that he would have gone to his death on the cross with doubt in his heart? If Thomas had to endure the cross, and he had lost faith, would he have been 'lost' or 'kept'? Like I said, I am not sold out to this theory, but I see it as plausible. I am open to having my mind changed.
This brings us back to the purpose of the swords. In Luke 22, verse 36 & 37 are tied together by the word, "For". It seems as though the purpose for gathering sacks, money, sandals, and swords was for the purpose of fulfilling the prophecy quoted in verse 37. The problem I have in this verse is that the original prophecy was that He would be numbered with the transgressors. I have always understood that to refer to the fact that He was crucified between two criminals. Yet, the two verses, read naturally, seem to indicate that the disciples' preparations (including swords) were necessary for the fulfillment to take place. Anybody have any ideas??
Further, when Peter does use the sword, Jesus reminds him that His destiny was to submit to arrest and crucifixion. If Jesus could have called down twelve legions of angels, and yet He chose not to, who was Peter to attempt to prevent Jesus fulfilling His purpose? So, if Jesus didn't allow Peter to use his sword in the midst of the most dire situation they could face, why would He encourage it's use later?
"My memory is nearly gone; but I remember two things: That I am a great sinner, and that Christ is a great Savior." - John Newton