Re: 2020 NASB update will be gender inclusive
Posted: Thu Nov 22, 2018 12:42 pm
I'm all for increasing clarity, but I do find word-for-word translation to be more linguistically interesting. As for which method is more accurate, that's hard to say.
In 1 Cor 9:5 "sister woman" is translated as "believing wife" or "Christian wife" by most translations (including the NASB), which I think is a fine, accurate translation. Those other examples seem equally harmless/accurate. (Not to mention all of the added spacing, punctuation, and capitalization.)
I don't see why English translations shouldn't change as the English language and cultures change, provided that the message is not changed. It's not a urination contest (pardon the vulgarity, but I can't think of a better phrase), and I don't' see any right or wrong about it.
However, personally, the NT does specifically refer to "sister(s)" (adelphé, I think) a few times (aside from references to specific females), and I like to know when it is or isn't in the original without having to look it up, although I realize that it doesn't seem to make any difference.
It is a legitimate translation choice, I think. If God had not wanted languages and cultures, then I suppose He would not have confused the languages (Gen 11).
I think we could all agree that "The Message" is not an accurate translation, whatever else it might be.
In 1 Cor 9:5 "sister woman" is translated as "believing wife" or "Christian wife" by most translations (including the NASB), which I think is a fine, accurate translation. Those other examples seem equally harmless/accurate. (Not to mention all of the added spacing, punctuation, and capitalization.)
I don't see why English translations shouldn't change as the English language and cultures change, provided that the message is not changed. It's not a urination contest (pardon the vulgarity, but I can't think of a better phrase), and I don't' see any right or wrong about it.
However, personally, the NT does specifically refer to "sister(s)" (adelphé, I think) a few times (aside from references to specific females), and I like to know when it is or isn't in the original without having to look it up, although I realize that it doesn't seem to make any difference.
It is a legitimate translation choice, I think. If God had not wanted languages and cultures, then I suppose He would not have confused the languages (Gen 11).
I think we could all agree that "The Message" is not an accurate translation, whatever else it might be.