Hermaneutic re Restore/Restoration

[Homer]

How are we to understand the fulfillment of the prophecies regarding "restore" and "restoration" in the following passages: literal or non-literal, and why?

Matthew 17:10-12
10. And His disciples asked Him, saying, “Why then do the scribes say that Elijah must come first?”
11. Jesus answered and said to them, “Indeed, Elijah is coming first and will restore (Grk verb apokathistemi) all things. 12. But I say to you that Elijah has come already, and they did not know him but did to him whatever they wished.

Acts 3:19-21
19. Repent therefore and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out, so that times of refreshing may come from the presence of the Lord, 20. and that He may send Jesus Christ, who was preached to you before, 21. whom heaven must receive until the times of restoration (Grk noun apokatastasis) of all things, which God has spoken by the mouth of all His holy prophets since the world began.

[steve]

These are very mysterious statements, it seems to me.

The statement about Elijah "restor[ing] all things" may be a paraphrase of Malachi's prediction that Elijah would "turn [restore?] the hearts of the children to their fathers", and vice versa. Jesus identifies this fulfillment (that is, of Malachi) with John the Baptist's ministry.

I have always seen the two statements of total restoration as having reference to the final outcome of things—but what, exactly, that outcome is to look like is unclear.

I am inclined to think that God's ultimate objective is to "restore" all the things that have been damaged or lost through the fall. Thus, in the New Jerusalem, "there is no more curse" (Rev.22:3). Elijah's (or John's) role in this would then have to be explained—which I do not think I can do.

Origen (famously) applied the word apokatastasis to the ultimate salvation of all who have been lost, including the devil and fallen angels. This view was apparently very widespread and acceptable in the church until a later century, when a council condemned it.

It is, I suppose, possible that it is a reference to the Jewish hope that God would "restore the kingdom to Israel" (Acts 1:6). Though they may have misunderstood the nature of the the "kingdom," and may even have been confused about the identity of "Israel," I do not think their hope was vain. God has been restoring the true kingdom to the true Israel for the past 2000 years. The complete restoration remains to be realized, when "the fulness of the gentiles" has come in.

[Apollos]

How are we to understand the fulfillment of the prophecies regarding "restore" and "restoration" in the following passages: literal or non-literal, and why?

Matthew 17:10-12
10. And His disciples asked Him, saying, “Why then do the scribes say that Elijah must come first?”
11. Jesus answered and said to them, “Indeed, Elijah is coming first and will restore (Grk verb apokathistemi) all things. 12. But I say to you that Elijah has come already, and they did not know him but did to him whatever they wished.

Acts 3:19-21
19. Repent therefore and be converted, that your sins may be blotted out, so that times of refreshing may come from the presence of the Lord, 20. and that He may send Jesus Christ, who was preached to you before, 21. whom heaven must receive until the times of restoration (Grk noun apokatastasis) of all things, which God has spoken by the mouth of all His holy prophets since the world began.

I never noticed before that these passages use the same Greek word (though one a noun and the other in verbal form). Not sure what it all means though

[christopher]

Is it possible to see the prophesy referring to the restoration of the glory of Israel during it's kingdom years (most notably David's reign)? It seems to be one of the major themes of the OT prophets (from Samuel to those who follow).

I tend to agree with what Steve said here:

It is, I suppose, possible that it is a reference to the Jewish hope that God would "restore the kingdom to Israel" (Acts 1:6). Though they may have misunderstood the nature of the the "kingdom," and may even have been confused about the identity of "Israel," I do not think their hope was vain. God has been restoring the true kingdom to the true Israel for the past 2000 years. The complete restoration remains to be realized, when "the fulness of the gentiles" has come in.

I would just add that the "spirit and power" of Elijah that was once in John, could now be seen as being resident in the church, speaking and acting prophetically to "turn the hearts" of people to God until all is restored.

[Homer]

Malachi 4:5-6 Prophetic statement of Elijah coming before the Lord and turning people to God.
Luke 1:17-23 The angel Gabriel informed Zecharia that John would go before the Lord and bring back many people to God, fulfilling the Malachi prophecy.
John 1:21-23 John says he is not the prophet Elijah (literally) but that he is the fulfillment of Isaiah 40:3
Isaiah 40:3-5 references the forerunner who will prepare the way.
Matthew 3:1-3, Mark 1:2-4, Luke 3:3 all affirm John is the fulfillment of Isaiah 40:3
Matthew 11:11-14 Jesus affirms that John "is the Elijah who was to come".
Matthew 17:10-13 Jesus affirms that Elijah must come first and "restore all things", then says Elijah has already come. The disciples understood Jesus was speaking of John the Baptist.
In my opinion "the restoration of all things" should be understood in the same sense (not absolute) that we understand Mark 1:5, that all of Judea and Jerusalem were being baptized by John. We know that was not literally true. Isaiah 40 = Malachi 4 = Matthew 17 and are fulfilled in John the Baptist.