Dual Fulfillment of Gal. 3:16?
Posted: Thu Apr 07, 2005 2:29 am
Steve,
I am having trouble reconciling Paul's statement in Gal 3:16 that the promise of Abraham's "seed" in Gen. 15:5 was not the physical descendants of Abraham, but was Jesus. My problem comes in verse 13 of Gen. 15 where the Lord says,
"Know for certain that your descendants (seed) will be strangers in a land that is not theirs, where they will be enslaved and oppressed four hundred years." (NASB)
You can probably imagine my argument before I state it, but it seems that Paul would be incorrect in his reference to Christ being the fulfillement of verse five since there is no way that He was oppressed and enslaved for four hundred years (since it would seem given the context that "descedenants" in vs. 5 are the same ones as in vs. 13). Also, modern translations translate "seed" as "descendants" and not "descendant" in vs. 5 and 13, which would not seem to line up with Paul's statement as well.
Now of course I do not believe Paul was incorrect, but it makes me wonder if this is one of those situations where their would be a dual fulfillment, and the fact that it is a dual fulfillment is something we deduce based on the whole of Scripture.
But that view, I would think, would bring up a significant problem since Paul is emphatic that,
"He does not say, 'And to seeds,' as {referring} to many, but {rather} to one, 'And to your seed,' that is, Christ."
But the idea that God is "referring to many" seems pretty clear in the context of Gen. 15! Ahhh! Help!
Any insight would be greatly appreciative. Thanks and blessings in Jesus!
Ryan
I am having trouble reconciling Paul's statement in Gal 3:16 that the promise of Abraham's "seed" in Gen. 15:5 was not the physical descendants of Abraham, but was Jesus. My problem comes in verse 13 of Gen. 15 where the Lord says,
"Know for certain that your descendants (seed) will be strangers in a land that is not theirs, where they will be enslaved and oppressed four hundred years." (NASB)
You can probably imagine my argument before I state it, but it seems that Paul would be incorrect in his reference to Christ being the fulfillement of verse five since there is no way that He was oppressed and enslaved for four hundred years (since it would seem given the context that "descedenants" in vs. 5 are the same ones as in vs. 13). Also, modern translations translate "seed" as "descendants" and not "descendant" in vs. 5 and 13, which would not seem to line up with Paul's statement as well.
Now of course I do not believe Paul was incorrect, but it makes me wonder if this is one of those situations where their would be a dual fulfillment, and the fact that it is a dual fulfillment is something we deduce based on the whole of Scripture.
But that view, I would think, would bring up a significant problem since Paul is emphatic that,
"He does not say, 'And to seeds,' as {referring} to many, but {rather} to one, 'And to your seed,' that is, Christ."
But the idea that God is "referring to many" seems pretty clear in the context of Gen. 15! Ahhh! Help!
Any insight would be greatly appreciative. Thanks and blessings in Jesus!
Ryan