So what is it about 2 Thessalonians 1 that makes you think that the describes event had to have taken place in the lifetime of Paul and his immediate audience? Are there not two plausible alternatives:psychohmike wrote:When a personal pronoun is used it can include up to all people of all time, but must include at a minimum, THE DIRECT AUDIENCE to be relevent and inspired.
8) Mike
1. Whether dead or alive, Paul and the saints he was writing to would witness the events descrbied (either from above or below?
2. Even if Paul may have been expecting the events to take place in their lifetime, it doesn't follow that they had to take place in their lifetime. In other words, the described events were certain to happen, but they were not certain to happen in their lifetime.
What is there in the text itself which prohibits these two alternative explanations?
btw, why are you called psychomike?
