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However, the order of the Greek words would seem to favour "the lamb slain from the foundation of the world (or cosmos)". Also the Greek says "FROM" the foundation of the world. The Greek preposition "απο" NEVER means "before". This may simply mean that it was in the mind of God from the time of the foundation of the cosmos, until the Lamb of God was actually slain, to provide for the salvation of the mankind through the death of the Messiah.And all who dwell on earth will worship it, every one whose name has not been written before the foundation of the world in the book of life of the lamb that was slain.
1 Peter 1:20 coupled with the question at hand should clear it up, don't you think? If not, why not?Paidion wrote:The Revised Standard Version and the English Standard Version translate Rev 13:8 it similarly:
However, the order of the Greek words would seem to favour "the lamb slain from the foundation of the world (or cosmos)". Also the Greek says "FROM" the foundation of the world. The Greek preposition "απο" NEVER means "before". This may simply mean that it was in the mind of God from the time of the foundation of the cosmos, until the Lamb of God was actually slain, to provide for the salvation of the mankind through the death of the Messiah.And all who dwell on earth will worship it, every one whose name has not been written before the foundation of the world in the book of life of the lamb that was slain.
Why would it? To be foreknown is not tantamount to having been chosen beforehand or predestined.Robby Young wrote:1 Peter 1:20 coupled with the question at hand should clear it up, don't you think? If not, why not?
The Online Bible Greek Lexicon defines the Greek verb "προγινοσκω" (to foreknow) as "to have knowledge beforehand."He was foreknown before the foundation of the world but was made manifest in the last times for your sake... (1 Peter 1:20)
Paidion, what in the world are you disagreeing with me about? Both verses say, "before the foundation of the world", the difference is "slain & chosen or foreknowledge" which I don't have a problem with.Paidion wrote:Why would it? To be foreknown is not tantamount to having been chosen beforehand or predestined.Robby Young wrote:1 Peter 1:20 coupled with the question at hand should clear it up, don't you think? If not, why not?
The Online Bible Greek Lexicon defines the Greek verb "προγινοσκω" (to foreknow) as "to have knowledge beforehand."He was foreknown before the foundation of the world but was made manifest in the last times for your sake... (1 Peter 1:20)
Paul was foreknown by his fellow Jews. Does that imply that his fellow jews chose him, or predestinated him to work in his ministry? Paul said:
My manner of life from my youth, which was spent from the beginning among my own nation at Jerusalem, all the Jews know. They knew (προγινοσκω) me from the first, if they were willing to testify, that according to the strictest sect of our religion I lived a Pharisee. (Acts 26:4,5 NKJV)
From this, the most obvious meaning of Jesus having been foreknown before the foundation of the world (or cosmos) is that God knew Him, knew all about Him prior to creation—long before He knew Him as a human being that walked the earth.